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- Aug 14, 2003
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I am certainly no statistics major or expert, but all of this nonsense talk about percentiles has me quite confused. Several people have posted about how because you know the standard deviation and the mean, then you can determine your percentile but how can this be since the scores are NOT a normal distribution. Determining that people within 1 standard deviation of the mean represent 68th percentile etc. applies ONLY to normal distributions. If this theory is so correct regarding COMLEX scores and the mean is 500 and the standard deviation is 79, then you are saying that one standard deviation above and one below represents 68 percent within 421-579. 34 percent from 500-579 and 34 percent from 421-500. And since 400 is passing, if you scored a 399 then you FAILED but your z score of -1.28 means you fall in the 10th percentile and since i have heard the pass rate for comlex is 95-97 percent, that doesn't add up...only 3-5 percent fail but you scored better than 10 percent and still failed...anyone that can explain how this makes sense...i am all ears.