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I am curious to get other peoples opinions on this...
on Friday afternoon, about 5-10 minutes after the patient's procedure the postoperative nurse came in to the fluoroscopy suite, when I was in the middle of my next case, and tell me the patient was reporting hives spreading across her chest and up to their face and also developing some "lip tingling". because I did not place an IV in this patient ( I usually do not for lumbar procedures) we did that right away of course and I gave her some IV Benadryl. I did not give epinephrine because she was not having any respiratory symptoms at all and denied any throat or tongue symptoms. her vitals were stone cold normal.
anyway, the Benadryl worked very nicely, we gave her second dose after a while just for good measure as she wasn't sedated at all from the first.
I am curious as to whether anyone would have sent her home on prednisone or given an injection of steroid in her deltoid or thigh "for the road". She looked so good after the Benadryl I recommended she continue oral Benadryl at home for the next 24 hours and call me with any problems. part of my rationale for not giving additional steroid is I just gave her 15 mg of dexamethasone in her epidural space.
opinions/comments/questions?
This is the first time I have seen a potential contrast reaction ( never saw one in residency, fellowship, or in 2 years of practice-- which of course I had just told a patient that very morning in clinic). I suppose other possible explanations could be reaction to preservatives? delayed lidocaine reaction? would a steroid flush from dexamethasone happen this fast? This was her second epidural and the first also used Omnipaque without problems ( Depo-Medrol for first injection, interlaminar)
on Friday afternoon, about 5-10 minutes after the patient's procedure the postoperative nurse came in to the fluoroscopy suite, when I was in the middle of my next case, and tell me the patient was reporting hives spreading across her chest and up to their face and also developing some "lip tingling". because I did not place an IV in this patient ( I usually do not for lumbar procedures) we did that right away of course and I gave her some IV Benadryl. I did not give epinephrine because she was not having any respiratory symptoms at all and denied any throat or tongue symptoms. her vitals were stone cold normal.
anyway, the Benadryl worked very nicely, we gave her second dose after a while just for good measure as she wasn't sedated at all from the first.
I am curious as to whether anyone would have sent her home on prednisone or given an injection of steroid in her deltoid or thigh "for the road". She looked so good after the Benadryl I recommended she continue oral Benadryl at home for the next 24 hours and call me with any problems. part of my rationale for not giving additional steroid is I just gave her 15 mg of dexamethasone in her epidural space.
opinions/comments/questions?
This is the first time I have seen a potential contrast reaction ( never saw one in residency, fellowship, or in 2 years of practice-- which of course I had just told a patient that very morning in clinic). I suppose other possible explanations could be reaction to preservatives? delayed lidocaine reaction? would a steroid flush from dexamethasone happen this fast? This was her second epidural and the first also used Omnipaque without problems ( Depo-Medrol for first injection, interlaminar)