electronic config of Mn+ vs Fe2+

This forum made possible through the generous support of SDN members, donors, and sponsors. Thank you.

rotten10

New Member
10+ Year Member
Joined
Mar 21, 2010
Messages
7
Reaction score
0
Hey guys, I was hoping you all could help explain something to me...

A book I have says that Mn+ has electronic configuration [Ar] 4s1 3d5, which makes sense, because of the half-shell's extra stability. But it also says that Fe2+ has an electronic configuration of [Ar] 3d6 with an empty 4s, which doesn't make sense to me: they both have the same number of valence electrons, so why are the electrons found in different subshells? And wouldn't this configuration for the Fe2+ be higher in energy than one like Mn+'s?

Members don't see this ad.
 
Fe2+ wouldn't necessarily be at higher energy Mn+, because they both have the same valence shell. (yes, the subshells differ)

The stability rules (Aufbau) are relevant to filling an electrons in, but I believe removal can take place in any(?) of the subshells of the valence shell.
 
ok so that gets the right answer, filling in and taking out by different principles... I read somewhere else online that when your taking e-'s out, you take it from the subshell with the highest n (4s here).

so as far as the mcat goes, I think I'm set - thanks phantastic.

but conceptually, I dont understand why you would take out the e- from 4s before 3d, since (based on n+l) 4s is lower in energy than 3d? wouldn't you want to take out the highest E e- first? is it just that, physically, it spends more time farther from the nucleus (as n=4)? if nobody knows that cool, i'm just wondering
 
...but conceptually, I dont understand why you would take out the e- from 4s before 3d, since (based on n+l) 4s is lower in energy than 3d? wouldn't you want to take out the highest E e- first? is it just that, physically, it spends more time farther from the nucleus (as n=4)? if nobody knows that cool, i'm just wondering

You're welcome.

If you want the "hardcore mode" rule: All transition metal ions have a valence (n-1)d orbital that is lower energy than the valence ns orbital.

So for a transition metal ion like the one presented above, the 3d orbital is actually lower energy than the 4s. Remember, this applies to ions of the transition metals.
 
Members don't see this ad :)
Why does 4s fill prior to 3d if 3d is lower energy? Is it because you can get the spin paired electrons more quickly?
 
Why does 4s fill prior to 3d if 3d is lower energy? Is it because you can get the spin paired electrons more quickly?


As far as energy levels:

4s < 3d if and only if we are in the ground state in the gas phase of a transition metals. They're weird like that. When you create a transition metal ion by removing an electron, you necessarily will alter the effective nuclear charge (Zeff) in one way or another. This consideration, as well as electron-electron repulsion, "ligand fields" (for compounds--like coordination complexes) and a few other concepts way beyond the scope of the MCAT account for this observation that the s orbitals are empty. That is usually the case in the real world.
 
Sorry, those are concepts from inorganic chem special topic course on transition metals...so I have a hard time understanding it entirely myself...😀
 
sweet answer, I didn't totally follow but I think I get the main idea there... anyway makes sense enough for me to be able to sleep easy now 🙂 thanks again
 
Top