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In April of 2007 (at the age of 20), I received a biopsy on what I now believe to be a Herald Patch (diameter of 1.5 inches on my upper left thigh) after the clinical impression was "atypical dermatitis, id". One of a few oblong patches on my left arm were also biopsied. This condition did not occur bilaterally and was accompanied with severe itchiness. The biopsy came back with a diagnosis of "spongiotic/eczematous changes" that the dermatologist told me meant I had eczema.
The official microscopic description reads: "...Sections show spongiosis, acanthosis, parakeratosis with serum, and a mixed inflammatory infilitrate including small lymphocytes and scattered eosinophils"
In trying to understand what all of that means by looking it up online, I came across pityriasis rosea which seems to align a lot more with what I had. However, I don't know if the biopsy language matches up with that. Thoughts? Could it be PR?
With the prescribed ointment, all rash/itching has disappeared completely and failed to reappear for at least 4 years.
As I am now trying to join the US Army I am hoping it is PR because eczema is a disqualifying factor for service. Please advise.
Thank you!!
The official microscopic description reads: "...Sections show spongiosis, acanthosis, parakeratosis with serum, and a mixed inflammatory infilitrate including small lymphocytes and scattered eosinophils"
In trying to understand what all of that means by looking it up online, I came across pityriasis rosea which seems to align a lot more with what I had. However, I don't know if the biopsy language matches up with that. Thoughts? Could it be PR?
With the prescribed ointment, all rash/itching has disappeared completely and failed to reappear for at least 4 years.
As I am now trying to join the US Army I am hoping it is PR because eczema is a disqualifying factor for service. Please advise.
Thank you!!
