this probably is not much signifigance for step 1 but as i am studying i remmeber i had the same question when i was taking anatomy and i am just kind of curious in something like clawhand from an ulnar nerve injury tyipcally it says you lose flexion of the last 2 fingers at the metacarpel phalangeal joints. But the FDS also flexes those same joints and it is supposedly its strongest action so im curious as to which muscles take priority.. the intrinsic hand muscles or the larger flexors. I dont see why MP joint flexion wouldnt be fine as long as you had the FDS in tact? just more curious thanks!
-
CycleTrack and SDN are teaming up to make medical school admissions more transparent and accessible! Read the announcement to learn how we’re supporting the future of CycleTrack’s free application-tracking tools .
You are using an out of date browser. It may not display this or other websites correctly.
You should upgrade or use an alternative browser.
You should upgrade or use an alternative browser.
Step I finger flexion anatomy question
Started by Ramoray
Get help with your application
Use all the free resources available to you from SDN: articles, guides, expert advising, forums discussions, and school research.
It still flexes, but its attachment site is such that it will only flex the first two joints, and not the DIP. Remember, the FDP attaches to the end of the distal phalanx, and is what makes a fist. If only FDS is intact, then you can flex everything but the DIP, and you make the 'claw hand'.
Actually, isnt this 'ape hand'? I thought clawhand was when you tried to extend the digits and you cant extend the DIP...its been awhile. I am sure about the attachment sites, but not about the specific lesions.
Not being able to extend the DIP's is also known as Mallet Finger. It usually happens with trauma to the DIP though.