So I have a strange problem where I get a lot of NBME questions wrong (even for step 1) and I'm trying to devise a system to fix this. The weird thing is I destroy UWorld questions on a consistent basis (I'm getting mid to high 80's now on timed, random blocks). I know the level of thinking that UW expects, and I feel like I can't figure that out with NBME questions. Here is a summary of an old NBME question from Form 1.
70 y.o. with increasing abdominal pain for 2 days. On peritoneal dialysis for 18 months and got last treatment 2 hours ago. She appears toxic, 102.2 F, BP 140/90 mm Hg. Abdomen is distended and diffusely tender to deep palpation with rebound tenderness. WBCs 18,000. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
A ) X-ray films of the abdomen
B ) Comparison of abdominal fluid amylase with serum amylase activity
C ) Gram's stain of abdominal fluid
D ) Ultrasonography of the abdomen
E ) CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
There is no official answer, but most people online seem to have agreed on C. I absolutely hated this question. My immediate thought was that we need a paracentesis to check for neutrophils >250 to confirm SBP and maybe send off for CULTURE. But the choice says GRAM STAIN. But a gram stain tells you nothing! (confirmed on emedicine) So I'm thinking...hmm is the purpose of this question to know that I would tap the ascites in this situation? Seems like an NBME thing to do. In UW I would confidently pick A and expect the explanation to talk about how crappy a gram stain is.
The reason I'm thinking A is that maybe the patient has a perforated bowel. Not the most likely scenario in my mind but more likely to tell you how to proceed than a inconclusive gram stain of her ascites.
Any advice on my thinking process? Also, what do you guys think the correct answer is? I have my doubts about C
70 y.o. with increasing abdominal pain for 2 days. On peritoneal dialysis for 18 months and got last treatment 2 hours ago. She appears toxic, 102.2 F, BP 140/90 mm Hg. Abdomen is distended and diffusely tender to deep palpation with rebound tenderness. WBCs 18,000. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
A ) X-ray films of the abdomen
B ) Comparison of abdominal fluid amylase with serum amylase activity
C ) Gram's stain of abdominal fluid
D ) Ultrasonography of the abdomen
E ) CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
There is no official answer, but most people online seem to have agreed on C. I absolutely hated this question. My immediate thought was that we need a paracentesis to check for neutrophils >250 to confirm SBP and maybe send off for CULTURE. But the choice says GRAM STAIN. But a gram stain tells you nothing! (confirmed on emedicine) So I'm thinking...hmm is the purpose of this question to know that I would tap the ascites in this situation? Seems like an NBME thing to do. In UW I would confidently pick A and expect the explanation to talk about how crappy a gram stain is.
The reason I'm thinking A is that maybe the patient has a perforated bowel. Not the most likely scenario in my mind but more likely to tell you how to proceed than a inconclusive gram stain of her ascites.
Any advice on my thinking process? Also, what do you guys think the correct answer is? I have my doubts about C