GPA(OB score)

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luxor

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🙂 Dear fellows~!

Please give me a correct answer the following question and explain why.
It is a quiz annoying me. I asked other guys but their answers were different.

Question:
A 34 y.o woman came in for pernatal check-up. AOG is 20 weeks. Past history reveald that she had one twin pregancy delivered by Primary LTCS at 32 wks, 1 ectopic pregnacy and her last child delivered by repeat LTCS at 37 wks because of premature rupture of membranes.

What is her OB score?
a. G4P2(1-2-1-3)
b. G3P2(2-1-1-3)
c. G4P2(1-1-1-3)
d. G3P3(1-2-1-3)

I would say the right one is c. because she has
4 Gravidas(AOG 20wks, one twin, 1 ectopic, 1 full term),
2 Para(one twin, 1 full term) and for TPAL
T1(one 37 wks)
P1(1 twin at 32wks)
A1(1 ectopic)
L3(one twin, 37wks LTCS)

More than a half answered it as a. I think because of twin.

Another question:
How would you say if AOG <20 wks, 1 full term, and 1 preterm?
I would say G3P2(1-1-0-2). Is it correct?
Should the number of term+preterm be match with the one of live? I don't think so because there may be a dead one.
 
The answer is C. G is every time you are pregnant and multiple fetuses count as one pregnancy. P is every time you deliver, regardless of number of neonates delivered. You break down P into Term, Preterm, Abortion (Elective and Spontaneous), and finally living is all the children alive. Therefore, if a child dies later in life, that still reduces the last number by one. This is why the ACOG form has places to write details about every pregnancy. TPAL provides some information but exceptions must be explained.
 
Thank you so much, Dr Eagle!
When they record OB score which way use mostly, G6P1234
or G4P2(1-1-2-3)?
 
I think it depends on the institution, but most recently I have seen this written G6P3215.
 
we can meet at the hospital someday soon......
God bless you~!
 
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