is it true that when using a lever by applying a force only on one end, then the same torque is applied at the other end, regardless of where the pivot is located?
Interesting torque rule
- Thread starter Schwann
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Nope...
T = Force x Distance x Sin Theta.
For the mcat, always assume its a 90 degree angle which makes sin 90 = 1.
So T = Force x Distance
If you move the pivot, or in otherwords change the distance from the point of force to the point of application, torque is changed.
T = Force x Distance x Sin Theta.
For the mcat, always assume its a 90 degree angle which makes sin 90 = 1.
So T = Force x Distance
If you move the pivot, or in otherwords change the distance from the point of force to the point of application, torque is changed.
right, i understand that. HOWEVER, if you are applying it perpendicularly to one end, a problem on tpr says that the torque on the other end has to be equal if there is no applied force on the other end.
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Well that is true also.
T= F x D
When you move a pivot, all you change is distance (arm) so force remains the same. Its conservation of energy, you only get out what you put in. If you created more force, it would violate this.
T= F x D
When you move a pivot, all you change is distance (arm) so force remains the same. Its conservation of energy, you only get out what you put in. If you created more force, it would violate this.
