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I just came across a question on kaplan diag#5 Q#20. Although I got the question right, the explanation says INTRAmolecular H-bonding has nothing to do with the boiling point..is this true??I though if a molecule is capable of Intramolecular H-bonding, it would have a lower boiling point cause it would have less intermolecular H-bonding..
is this true??
is this true??