I've got a difficult patient who has been taking seroquel for several years. However, comes to me in his mid 20's complaining of difficulties functioning. Can't figure out what he wants to do with his future. Can't think, easily stressed, no motivation, no energy to get up and do things during the day. In general, I suspect depression.
I suggest prozac. He complains that ssri's "induce anhedonia and brain fog" (his words) and therefore won't take them. Despite my assurance that many patients do in fact benefit from antidepressants, he remains reluctant. After further discussion, I wanted to determine why he was on seroquel. Apparently, he has been taking 100mg for 4 years just for insomnia and anhedonia. As I've never heard seroquel referred to help anyone in such a way for anhedonia, part of me is confused.
I wanted to switch him over to trazodone mainly because I felt that his level of functioning would be better versus a continued life on seroquel. He did not like this idea at all. He's insisted that he's always liked seroquel because it has helped him to enjoy listening to music, and essentially from what I gathered, more able to enjoy emotional media.
This has put me in an uncomfortable position. Seeing a patient for the first time without having any history of records and I'm already required to look at medication options that aren't first-line.
After further discussion and frustration, I end up asking him "If there is a medication that you feel would tackle your symptoms, which one would it be?" His answer being "Anything but an SSRI, however while we are on that subject, I need some clonazepam for my seroquel induced anxiety."
I ask him to elaborate. He further explains that the seroquel makes him feel this huge adrenaline rush. He says that he feels like this presense is in his room watching him with malicious intentions, and that the clonazepam makes the terror go away.
At this point I'm not sure whether to believe this, or think that maybe there was a legitimate reason for him having been prescribed seroquel in the past that I've yet to be aware of. In either case, I suggest to him again that perhaps it would be best to come off of the seroquel. Despite his experiences, he still wants to stay on the bloody seroquel.
Now I'm just utterly bewildered. Why would anyone want to take a medication like seroquel, if they were experiencing paranoia from it? (If that's even what's happening)
My question is has anyone actually had patients describe getting symptoms of severe anxiety and paranoia from seroquel? My patient strongly believes that it is the seroquel causing this and will not budge on the matter.
How can someone who claims to want to get better, be so utterly against getting better?
On another note, should I be concerned about substance abuse? I have read in the literature that seroquel does have an abuse potential, but I've never really thought anything of it.
I suggest prozac. He complains that ssri's "induce anhedonia and brain fog" (his words) and therefore won't take them. Despite my assurance that many patients do in fact benefit from antidepressants, he remains reluctant. After further discussion, I wanted to determine why he was on seroquel. Apparently, he has been taking 100mg for 4 years just for insomnia and anhedonia. As I've never heard seroquel referred to help anyone in such a way for anhedonia, part of me is confused.
I wanted to switch him over to trazodone mainly because I felt that his level of functioning would be better versus a continued life on seroquel. He did not like this idea at all. He's insisted that he's always liked seroquel because it has helped him to enjoy listening to music, and essentially from what I gathered, more able to enjoy emotional media.
This has put me in an uncomfortable position. Seeing a patient for the first time without having any history of records and I'm already required to look at medication options that aren't first-line.
After further discussion and frustration, I end up asking him "If there is a medication that you feel would tackle your symptoms, which one would it be?" His answer being "Anything but an SSRI, however while we are on that subject, I need some clonazepam for my seroquel induced anxiety."
I ask him to elaborate. He further explains that the seroquel makes him feel this huge adrenaline rush. He says that he feels like this presense is in his room watching him with malicious intentions, and that the clonazepam makes the terror go away.
At this point I'm not sure whether to believe this, or think that maybe there was a legitimate reason for him having been prescribed seroquel in the past that I've yet to be aware of. In either case, I suggest to him again that perhaps it would be best to come off of the seroquel. Despite his experiences, he still wants to stay on the bloody seroquel.
Now I'm just utterly bewildered. Why would anyone want to take a medication like seroquel, if they were experiencing paranoia from it? (If that's even what's happening)
My question is has anyone actually had patients describe getting symptoms of severe anxiety and paranoia from seroquel? My patient strongly believes that it is the seroquel causing this and will not budge on the matter.
How can someone who claims to want to get better, be so utterly against getting better?
On another note, should I be concerned about substance abuse? I have read in the literature that seroquel does have an abuse potential, but I've never really thought anything of it.