Could someone please answer this question? Is the use of IV lidocaine in the perioperative period only to decrease the need for opiod use? I was in a case ( just hanging out and learning as I will not be starting residency until 2011) and the anesthesiologist used lidocaine when the pt was waking up a bit to early from the procedure he than gave propofol soon after. He said that sometimes lidocaine is enough to calm the pt back down and I assume that would just be in regards to pain control and have nothing to do with sedation. My thought process here is that is the pt would be assumed to have enough sedation on board to keep him calm if his pain was lessened by the use of the slug of IV liodcaine ( it didnt work hence the use of propofol very soon after). I cant seem to find a good answer or discussion in my books or on-line. Thanks