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I'm sure you all see from time to time, patient with partial relief and chronic pain after a compression fracture. I refer to fractures that were treated either conservatively or with kypho. I intermittently see patients who have 2/3rd relief after someone else did a kyphoplasty.
I find that some of these patients respond to mbb/rf, and my question concerns the optimal levels to be treated.
For example, patient with old L1 compression fracture, s/p kypho. Would you just treat the medial branches lying across L1 (T12mbb)? Or would you proceed to T12,L1 MBB, or T12,T11, or T11,T12,L1?
Let's assume for this exercise, that these upper lumbar facet joints don't look that bad, and new MRI stir images negative for further fracture.
Thoughts?
I find that some of these patients respond to mbb/rf, and my question concerns the optimal levels to be treated.
For example, patient with old L1 compression fracture, s/p kypho. Would you just treat the medial branches lying across L1 (T12mbb)? Or would you proceed to T12,L1 MBB, or T12,T11, or T11,T12,L1?
Let's assume for this exercise, that these upper lumbar facet joints don't look that bad, and new MRI stir images negative for further fracture.
Thoughts?