MPJE Reiss and Hall question

[Giraffe]

---

Members do not see this ad.

7th edition, Guide to Federal Pharmacy Law Reiss and Hall.
Pg. 313, question 220. Can anybody please explain why the answer also includes the brand name coumadin by BMS as the answer.

Question: Prescription is written for warfarin (not Coumadin) with a substitution desired. Why would you fill the prescription with a trade name Coumadin product? Is the answer in the book wrong ??

THANKS

 

[ucrx]

7th edition, Guide to Federal Pharmacy Law Reiss and Hall.
Pg. 313, question 220. Can anybody please explain why the answer also includes the brand name coumadin by BMS as the answer.

Question: Prescription is written for warfarin (not Coumadin) with a substitution desired. Why would you fill the prescription with a trade name Coumadin product? Is the answer in the book wrong ??

THANKS

I have the 6th edition, but it looks like the question is the same. I believe the answer is correct because you can fill either brand or generic. Federal law doesn't say you can't fill for brand when written for generic or substitution allowed. That doesn't mean insurance will pay for it. Some state laws do not allow brand to be filled in this situation, but that is not a federal law.

 

[Giraffe]

Thank you.

 

[pharmkk]

isn't it bc warfarin is a narrow therapeutic drug so you must dispense whatever the prescription writes for

 

[farmadiazepine]

I think Reiss and Hall sucks .. I was reading over that Coumadin question yesterday and thinking to myself "wut kinda crap is this" ... It's ridiculous ..