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yo. what do y'all think about this question from NBME 1 (old school i know):
45-year-old woman has an acute coronary occlusion. Within seconds, the ischemic region shows mitochondrial swelling and depletion of glycogen granules Which of the following metabolic events is the most likely cause of these cellular changes?
- ATP depletion
- accumulation of free fatty acids
- degradation of membrane phospholipids
- efflux of k
- influx of na
i think it's ATP depletion because of the timing ("within seconds") and swelling (which according to pathoma is reversible) but depletion of glycogen granules means that it's sort of extensive, so maybe degradation of membrane phospholipids.
45-year-old woman has an acute coronary occlusion. Within seconds, the ischemic region shows mitochondrial swelling and depletion of glycogen granules Which of the following metabolic events is the most likely cause of these cellular changes?
- ATP depletion
- accumulation of free fatty acids
- degradation of membrane phospholipids
- efflux of k
- influx of na
i think it's ATP depletion because of the timing ("within seconds") and swelling (which according to pathoma is reversible) but depletion of glycogen granules means that it's sort of extensive, so maybe degradation of membrane phospholipids.