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Mole fraction= Moles of x/total moles correct?
Can someone explain to me why you use the value they give for the mole fraction as the moles of solute in the molality equation? I dont see how the mole fraction can be substituted as is.
Thanks in advance
Can someone explain to me why you use the value they give for the mole fraction as the moles of solute in the molality equation? I dont see how the mole fraction can be substituted as is.
Thanks in advance