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- Dec 10, 2003
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I asked this question in the allopathic forum and I thought I should ask the question here considering that many of you might be able to answer this question better.
does a person have to be board certified (by a US residency program) to practice in a non-industrialized country, or would simply the american MD be enough?
Another question: Does a person have to be board certrified by an industrialized countries' residency program to be able to practice there (e.g. to practice in england I'd have to be board certified by a residency program in england), does this also apply if I want to be a family practitionar in England, or any other european country? Would I still have to complete a residency program and take usmle equivalents there?
i'm an ms1 at a US allopathic school, so my knowledge of both us residency programs and programs abroad are limited, thx in advance for answering my questions.
does a person have to be board certified (by a US residency program) to practice in a non-industrialized country, or would simply the american MD be enough?
Another question: Does a person have to be board certrified by an industrialized countries' residency program to be able to practice there (e.g. to practice in england I'd have to be board certified by a residency program in england), does this also apply if I want to be a family practitionar in England, or any other european country? Would I still have to complete a residency program and take usmle equivalents there?
i'm an ms1 at a US allopathic school, so my knowledge of both us residency programs and programs abroad are limited, thx in advance for answering my questions.