There seems to be a tension between the view that mental disorders are neurological disorders at base and the view that psychiatry is independent from (and not reducible to) neurology.
What do you mean by neurology here, Toby? Neurology is a branch of clinical medicine that does not encompass psychiatric disorders. Do you mean reducible to neurobiology? I don't think that psychiatry is supposed to be independant from neuroscience, it's an application of neuroscience.
I think that behavioral symptom clusters (the natural kinds for psychiatry) won't turn out to map onto (be type-identical to) neurological states.
Why is type-identity required? I think all that's required is supervenience.
Foundationalism: The physical facts determine the chemical facts and the chemical facts determine the biological facts and the biological facts determine the psychological facts and the psychological facts determine the actions (while the biological facts determine the behaviors). (But not the other way around - so no type-identity - no reduction)
Is this just saying that everything supervenes on physics?
I wonder if foundationalist surgeons worry about whether future chemists or physicists will be able to perform interventions such that intervening on biological structures will dissolve as a field. Can you just see a physicist with a proton gun trying to effect physical changes to physical particles that equate to a coronary bypass??? Doesn't that seem... Silly?
What analogy are you making here? Something between psychotherapy and psychopharmacology?
I don't see why it should matter to the scientific status of psychiatry that mental disorders aren't type-type identical to neurological types. Of course foundationalism is true - but that doesn't have any implications whatsoever for what the best interventions are going to be.
I think that your arguments always circle around this idea that ultimately pharmacological intervention is not as good as behavioral intervention. You can show that pharmacological intervention is not better than behavioral intervention a priori just because pharmacology is a more fundamental explanatory level, but that's not the viewpoint of most people here.
Ultimately psychiatry cares about intervening on behaviour / action (including verbal behaviour / action). No reason to think that neurology will trump psychology will trump sociology with respect to effective interventions...
Well there are reasons to think that intervening on the chemical level will be more effective than intervening on the social level... not every pathway in the brain can be modulated by environmental stimulus. Parkinson's disease, for instance, can't be cured with therapy... And neither can schizophrenia. Whatever schizophrenia is in the brain, that thing can't be cured by environmental stimulus or talk-therapy, but it can be treated by altering the chemical neurotransmitters directly.
Medicine has been interested in problematic behaviors for as long as it has been interested in problematic states of organs / parts of organs. Psychiatric symptoms were considered part of medicine for as long as medicine has existed. It is all about providing the best treatment (medicine being an applied field). I see no compelling reason to change that...
That's true, but you're trying to use that to argue the opposite, that psychotherapeutic intervention is "better", and that does not follow.