Hey guys,
here's a q that's been given to us by one of the docs on the ward, and i've got no idea how to answer it:
A mid-aged man was vaccinated when the first commercial measles vaccine came out in the USA, back in 1957.
He's a healthcare worker, and while traveling he was in Ethiopia and took care of kids with measles, without getting infected.
However, a few years later, while on the peds ward, he was again exposed to kids with measles,, and this time DID get infected and had an active measles disease.
He does not have an immune deficiency and he did not go any bone marrow transplant or other immune modifying diseases or therapies.
How can you explain that he did not get infected during the first time but did get the disease during the second time?
Thanks for your help!
here's a q that's been given to us by one of the docs on the ward, and i've got no idea how to answer it:
A mid-aged man was vaccinated when the first commercial measles vaccine came out in the USA, back in 1957.
He's a healthcare worker, and while traveling he was in Ethiopia and took care of kids with measles, without getting infected.
However, a few years later, while on the peds ward, he was again exposed to kids with measles,, and this time DID get infected and had an active measles disease.
He does not have an immune deficiency and he did not go any bone marrow transplant or other immune modifying diseases or therapies.
How can you explain that he did not get infected during the first time but did get the disease during the second time?
Thanks for your help!