So, my train of bizarre cases continues...

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Greenbbs

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On Saturday, I had one of those "holy ****......" moments.

I had a 47 year old female come in to the ED in full C-spine and backboard precautions after she had an apparent seizure at a bank. Apparently, the patient was doing her banking, started to stare, then had a 2-3 minute generalized seizure, all of which occurred in front of one of our neurologists, who happened to be behind her.

So, patient comes in, as above, and was post-ictal, with some somnolence and just feeling out of it. Was totally A+O in the ED, but didn't remember the seizure. Mild, nondescript HA, small abrasion to her scalp, nondescript neck tenderness. Nothing major on physical exam. Talking to her husband, she didn't have any pertinent medical history, no HTN, no CAD, no family history of seizure or stroke, or anything. Your run of the mill healthy 47 year old. Further questioning revealed that she had some sort of URI over the past week, with a cough and some runny nose, sore throat, etc.

Vitals were stable except for a temp of like 99.5 or something negligible like that. No HTN, no tachy, etc.

So, we did a CBC, CMP, tox, preg, ekg, etc, and go the head/c-spine CT.

CBC revealed a WBC of 17, with a slight left shift. CMP revealed a CO2 of 16, but no other major electrolyte abnormalities. EKG was unremarkable. CT's were unremarkable. Based on the history of URI and unknown source of seizure, went ahead and did an LP.

Lady's a small lady, like 120 lbs. Great landmarks. Get right in, no trouble. Pull out the stylette from the needle, and it comes out light pink and cloudy. I'm thinking it'll clear, maybe I hit a vessel or something on the way in. But, across 4 tubes, doesn't clear. Still light pink and cloudy. I called the lab and told em to spin the tubes after they get their counts, etc, and look for xanthochromia.

CSF comes back. Our CSF protocol does cell counts from tube 3, and glucose, etc from tube 1. 2 goes to culture and 4 is the spare.

Tube 3 count comes back with 14880 RBC's, and 0 WBC's. Spun down, still pink fluid. Protein was slightly high at 60. Glucose normal.

So, I start thinking...do I have one of those 5% of SAH's that are missed on CT? Call back to the lab and have em run cell counts on all the tubes.

Each tube had roughly 14000 RBC's and 0 WBC's, give or take a couple hundred RBC's. They never cleared between tube 1 and 4.

Called our neurosurgeon, who said to transfer to the quaternary care center down the road because our IR guys don't do coiling. So, we called quaternary mecca, and they accepted her for immediate angio. The quaternary neurosurgeon agreed that it was obviously SAH until proven otherwise.

So, yesterday, called down there to see what happened, and they said that they didn't see any aneurysms, but they thought that it was a traumatic SAH from falling down to the ground. They thought that when she had the fall, she may have disrupted some capillaries in the arachnoid space, which leaked the blood out into the CSF, but it had sealed itself off.

Goes to show you....you can't always rely on technology. And, LP really is the gold standard for SAH.
 
I had that happen to a collegue of mine earlier this month. We had this exact same conversation. Actually there was an article in one of the Neurosurg journals that my staff was quoting that said that post CT LP's aren't necessary anymore...hmmm. I might still do them.

Just out of curiosity. Why not just give her IVF and repeat the CBC/lytes 7 in a bit. Most pts who are post ictal have a leukocytosis and a metabolic acidosis. I probably wouldn't have tapped her if she would have been a known seizure pt, just based on those labs. But if this were her first seizure, then yes, LP-away.
 
I had that happen to a collegue of mine earlier this month. We had this exact same conversation. Actually there was an article in one of the Neurosurg journals that my staff was quoting that said that post CT LP's aren't necessary anymore...hmmm. I might still do them.

Just out of curiosity. Why not just give her IVF and repeat the CBC/lytes 7 in a bit. Most pts who are post ictal have a leukocytosis and a metabolic acidosis. I probably wouldn't have tapped her if she would have been a known seizure pt, just based on those labs. But if this were her first seizure, then yes, LP-away.

It was her first seizure. We could account for the acidosis, but not for the wbc of 17. if it was lower, like say 13/14, we could have said, eh, probably the seizure. But, without any seizure history, we tapped away.
 
It was her first seizure. We could account for the acidosis, but not for the wbc of 17. if it was lower, like say 13/14, we could have said, eh, probably the seizure. But, without any seizure history, we tapped away.

First, let me say you did all the right things. However, even at 17, without a fever, I can easily visualize that as demargination secondary to a stress response. That's why I started with a caveat - even though I can visualize it, it is straight-out bad medicine not to tap this patient.
 
The only time I've seen pink, cloudy CSF with an elevated protein and RBC count was only in the setting of some lymphocytes. Patient turned out to have HSV meningitis. (Also presented with a seizure, although EMS thought she was "crazy" since she was hallucinating.)
 
I actually saw a somewhat similar case a couple years ago. Seized at the store, neg CT, etc. To top it all off, lady seized right as I hit CSF on the LP. All ended well, big aneurysm which was leaking a little and got fixed, but a memorable moment for sure.
 
So.. as far as weird cases I had one yesterday...

50 y/o male comes in c/o LBP & mild weakness in his BLE s/p crashing his bike 1 week ago. Something isnt right with him so after i swing back by him I decide to order some blood work as well.

PMH occ ETOH, homeless, distant hx of rectal bleed. Denies bowel or bladder incontinence.

Vitals stable afeb, hr 70s bp 120s/70s over 6 - 7 hours while in waiting room.
exam no clonus I was waiting for him to be placed in a gown. able to move all 4 ext but weak in his BLE 3/5 equal reflexes intact.

4 mins later this guy ends up coding in our hallway. turns out his BUN - 247, cr 16 K 8, na 109.. did the hyperK thing and fixed him.. just insane.. no c/o cp or anything else.


Turns out
 
So.. as far as weird cases I had one yesterday...

50 y/o male comes in c/o LBP & mild weakness in his BLE s/p crashing his bike 1 week ago. Something isnt right with him so after i swing back by him I decide to order some blood work as well.

PMH occ ETOH, homeless, distant hx of rectal bleed. Denies bowel or bladder incontinence.

Vitals stable afeb, hr 70s bp 120s/70s over 6 - 7 hours while in waiting room.
exam no clonus I was waiting for him to be placed in a gown. able to move all 4 ext but weak in his BLE 3/5 equal reflexes intact.

4 mins later this guy ends up coding in our hallway. turns out his BUN - 247, cr 16 K 8, na 109.. did the hyperK thing and fixed him.. just insane.. no c/o cp or anything else.


Turns out
What was his CPK?
 
Goes to show you....you can't always rely on technology. And, LP really is the gold standard for SAH.

Interesting case......the possibility of a traumatic subarachnoid from her fall is definitely on her differential.

I've had 2 cases since leaving residency of CT negative, LP positive, cerebral angiogram positive cases of subarachnoid hemorrhages. Unfortunately, the reality is that these cases do exist. In both of these cases, the CSF looked like a watered down cherry Kool-Aid.

I had another case that was probably more interesting that also was CT negative/LP positive. He went for his cerebral angiogram by IR and was found not to have any abnormality. Apparently vasospasm, size of aneurysm, and location of aneurysm all play into the sensitivities of cerebral angiogram. After a negative cerebral angiogram, the next step is an MRI/MRA. If this shows the lesion, neurosurgery can now intervene knowing the size/location of the aneurysm and knowing that the LP positivity indicates the aneurysm is leaking. If the MRI/MRA is negative, the next step is a complete cerebrospinal angiogram in 1 week. This allows vasospasm to be removed from the picture and now allows a more expansive evaluation for dural AVM's as well.

With my patient, he had a screening MRI of his spine performed at the same time as his MRI/MRA. He presented with a thunderclap onset of the worst HA of his life 2 days ago with back pain and sensation of incomplete voiding. The two days from his event likely reduced the sensitivity of his CT. The MRI revealed signal abnormality in his subarachnoid spaces of his thoracolumbar spine concerning for hemorrhage as well as a slight layering effect on his cauda equina. It was pretty cool because it explained his headache, his back pain (blood as an irritant), and his urinary complaints (beginning of overflow incontinence due to mass effect of clotting blood on the dependent portions of his cauda equina). So, in one weeks time, he had a full cerebrospinal angiogram.

Unfortunately, this never did show the lesion. In speaking with the radiologists and even f_w here on SDN (who is a great wealth of knowledge and who I profoundly respect), it appears that there is so much to angiograms none of us as non-interventionalists can never truly appreciate. It relates to which levels to insert dye, which vertebral artery to inject (the dominant and let the non-dominant fill with retrograde flow? or maybe both vertebral arteries?), and other issues. Like with all medicine, we all have tough jobs.

And apparently, small venous bleeds, especially in the dura are even harder to find.

On an off-but-related note, it was great to hear that there was subarachnoid blood seen on the MRI. It proved to everyone else that my LP wasn't traumatic! And yes, my LP did show xanthochromia....but apparently the sensitivity of this test has an inversely proportional relationship with the number of RBC's in the CSF. In other words, xanthochromia is nice, but doesn't add too much clinically since a very traumatic LP can have xanthochromia.
 
That's pretty high for being one week out from injury considering you clear 30% per day. I'm assuming this was the theory behind his ARF?

Probably but he doesnt have a reason to have an elevated CPK. Ill prob swing by the ICU sometime this weekend and see what they have going on.
 
What I dont get is why would his cpk be up? he wasnt laying on the floor for a long time, he had no bruising..
 
CPK questions:
How homeless is he? As I recall, this is the time to be in Tucson. Pleasant day temps and nice sleeping weather. However, if he is 'tenting it' over on the East side. He may be cooking his days away.

How drunk is he? Enough? Could this guy have seized?

What is he drinking? EtGlyc. comes to mind.

Any bites? snake, spider?

Did you have a a chance to give him the thorough once over to check the nooks and crannies for wounds?
 
CPK questions:
How homeless is he? As I recall, this is the time to be in Tucson. Pleasant day temps and nice sleeping weather. However, if he is 'tenting it' over on the East side. He may be cooking his days away.

How drunk is he? Enough? Could this guy have seized?

What is he drinking? EtGlyc. comes to mind.

Any bites? snake, spider?

Did you have a a chance to give him the thorough once over to check the nooks and crannies for wounds?

No he is semi sheltered and his boss let him hang at his place. I dont think this is/was exposure.

He wasnt drunk at all.

No bites found, nothing on physical exam, but again i did this post code.
 
No he is semi sheltered and his boss let him hang at his place. I dont think this is/was exposure.

He wasnt drunk at all.

No bites found, nothing on physical exam, but again i did this post code.

Could he have run into the po-po? Multiple taser strikes could cause the elevated CK and rhabdo induced ARF? Rare to be certain but...
 
Could he have run into the po-po? Multiple taser strikes could cause the elevated CK and rhabdo induced ARF? Rare to be certain but...

Doesn't have to be 5-0...

http://www.taser.com/products/consumers/Pages/C2.aspx

c2_07_logo.jpg


Yes - if you lose it, they'll send a new one for free. One thing that is buried deep in the information is the "pop and drop" or "stun and run" - the duty cycle (how long it shocks for) is 30 seconds. Woman tases the attacker, who is now feeling like he's sitting in "Old Sparky" in Talahassee, as she runs away, and they send her a new one, free.

5 seconds? Pffffh. Amateurs.
 
I thought the research was pretty clear that it's not so much the tasering, but the handcuffing, the immobilization, and the attendant positional asphyxia. That's where the resp acidosis comes from, anyway... I'm not so sure about the rhabdo...

Tasers don't seem to raise Troponin, and don't seem to do too much to a 12-lead.
All the research points in that direction, but it is still very controversial and will likely end up as one of these things where the science doesn't dictate the policy (like with silicone breast implants). There is not enough yet to definitively say that it's not the Tasers, I think, mostly because these deaths are so rare. Also you have the ACLU et al. claiming that excited delirium is a fictitious condition that was made up to protect the cops.

I think it's ironic that people keep limiting the nonlethal force options for police because sometimes people get hurt...what do they think will happen when the only alternative is the gun?
 
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