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I know its not recommended, but any people here with experience?
I know its not recommended, but any people here with experience?
As noted above, concern has been expressed regarding the administration of sugammadex to patients with renal failure, given the potential for prolonged excretion of the sugammadex-rocuronium complex.9 The delayed excretion has led to the theoretical concern of the dissociation of rocuronium from the sugammadex-rocuronium complex with recurrence of neuromuscular blockade. However, dissociation is minimal, as it has been estimated4,6,22 that for every 25 million sugammadex-rocuronium complexes that are formed, only one complex dissociates. No change in renal function or alteration in renal biomarkers has been noted following its use in patients with renal dysfunction.23 Additional data from the literature23–25 also support safety and efficacy of sugammadex in patients with altered renal function (Table).
I've given it plenty of times to renal failure patients and never had an issue with the hypothetical re-curarization. As DCHZ explained, only a small fraction of the aminosteroid NMBs are renally eliminated - it's mostly liver / bile. While this does cause a somewhat prolonged duration of action, it does not impact the effectiveness of sugammadex.
On two occasions I've given sugammadex in PACU to patients who were given roc + neo/glyco in the OR (not by me) and 30 minutes later were in respiratory distress from residual paralysis. So in my book, in 2020 and going forwards, there are two equally safe options for ESRD patients - cisatracurium or roc+suga - and both are superior to roc+neo.
This is a case report I fond on the front page of google, and this summary paragraph puts it all together nicely:
View attachment 312246
Isn't sugammadex less effective with vec vs roc? I'd imagine the recurarization was due to the reduced binding with vec and not the renal failure.A couple years ago I gave a 2 mg/kg to a ESRD patient who had 2/4 twitches (relaxed with vec), she got her twitches and strength back and extubated seemingly without issue and following commands. I get called to the PACU about 30 minutes later about some hypoxia and patient was definitely floppy - gave another 2 mg/kg dose at that point which again perked her back up quickly with no further issues. Since this incident I try to avoid suggamadex in ESRD patients but if I do end up using it I go with the bigger dose just to be safe.
Isn't sugammadex less effective with vec vs roc? I'd imagine the recurarization was due to the reduced binding with vec and not the renal failure.
Isn't sugammadex less effective with vec vs roc? I'd imagine the recurarization was due to the reduced binding with vec and not the renal failure.
Do you guys notice more secretions on extubation with sugammadex versus neo/glyc?
And, do you guys give the entire 200mg in the vial or you dose to necessary dose based on twitches? Some people I work with with four twitches at the end decide to give the whole vile dose just because it won't be reused. When I say 200mg, meaning a 60kg patient who would have needed maybe 60-120mg based on dosing.
Do you guys notice more secretions on extubation with sugammadex versus neo/glyc?
And, do you guys give the entire 200mg in the vial or you dose to necessary dose based on twitches? Some people I work with with four twitches at the end decide to give the whole vile dose just because it won't be reused. When I say 200mg, meaning a 60kg patient who would have needed maybe 60-120mg based on dosing.
Regularly give the whole vial. Innert molecule, very little downside. It also gives you a margin of safety against reparalyzation.
I do too. An argument can be made that it has a relatively decent risk of Non-IgE mediated allergic anaphylaxis/non-allergic anaphylaxis so reducing dose reduces the chance of this. It's a stretch, but I can see someone doing it.Regularly give the whole vial. Innert molecule, very little downside. It also gives you a margin of safety against reparalyzation.
That's the joy of sugammadex. Megadose if no twitches, 2-4 mg/kg works on just about everyone else. In the same way that many just give 200 of sugammadex to everyone, many start with a full 50mg vial of roc, even for a shorter case, since sugammadex works so well.I try to have 4/4 twitches at the end of the case. I personally do not like reversing on 0-2/4 twitches. I supervise so now I just show up and cross my fingers
Regularly give the whole vial. Innert molecule, very little downside. It also gives you a margin of safety against reparalyzation.
Definitely agree we should assess twitches before dosing. I see this as done as well and it irks me to no end. How hard is it to check twitches? What if pt has zero post tetanic and we are willy nilly reversing? Sloppy. Truly sloppyRespectfully disagree. Have personally witnessed anaphylactic reaction to sugammadex. I would treat it like any other medication, dose it as needed, titrate to effect, use what you need to get reversal. Sugammadex is pretty convenient, and overall much safer and more effective than neo/glyco, but still has risks. I see a lot of people just pushing a vial without assessing twitches. I discourage this as a regular practice.
Respectfully disagree. Have personally witnessed anaphylactic reaction to sugammadex. I would treat it like any other medication, dose it as needed, titrate to effect, use what you need to get reversal. Sugammadex is pretty convenient, and overall much safer and more effective than neo/glyco, but still has risks. I see a lot of people just pushing a vial without assessing twitches. I discourage this as a regular practice.
So if you have 1 /4 twitch you don't like reversing?I try to have 4/4 twitches at the end of the case. I personally do not like reversing on 0-2/4 twitches. I supervise so now I just show up and cross my fingers
Definitely agree we should assess twitches before dosing. I see this as done as well and it irks me to no end. How hard is it to check twitches? What if pt has zero post tetanic and we are willy nilly reversing? Sloppy. Truly sloppy
I try to have 4/4 twitches at the end of the case. I personally do not like reversing on 0-2/4 twitches. I supervise so now I just show up and cross my fingers
Not wrong and i do sometimes too. But for example, our ICU still doesn’t appear to know what sugammadex is. Every time i drop off a sick patient that i feel like they would leave intubated if i brought them back so opt to give them a shot at extubation, i sign out that roc may not work if you have to reintubate in the next few hours. Clueless expression on their face every time.
So tend to start with textbook dose and adjust with the rest if it appears clinically necessary.
how long does sugg last in body in normal renal function? i dont recall anymore
Hmm If only you had a device in your hands capable of googling sugammadex half life.
off the top of my head ishow long does sugg last in body in normal renal function? i dont recall anymore
im on a desktop right now so it doesnt fit in my hands
If I’m doing my own case, I titrate paralytic so I have twitches back at the end. Try not to end up in a situation where it’s only 0-1 twitches. Doesn’t always happen but that’s the goal.I see your point of view.
For the sake of argument how do you know:
-it as an anaphylactic reaction?
-it was the sugamadex that caused the anaphylactic reaction?
-reducing the dose of the drug would have prevented the reaction?
So if you have 1 /4 twitch you don't like reversing?
Are you saying if the pt has 0 post tetanic twitches then the patient has no molecule in the cleft?
If I’m doing my own case, I titrate paralytic so I have twitches back at the end. Try not to end up in a situation where it’s only 0-1 twitches. Doesn’t always happen but that’s the goal.
easily done with good surgeons. then you have those surgeons who demand 0 twitch for closure...
easily done with good surgeons. then you have those surgeons who demand 0 twitch for closure...
Tell em prima donna's belong in the Opera house.0 twitches for closing skin?
Anaphylaxis is a clinical syndrome; normally pretty unlikely to be anything else if it looks like anaphylaxis and comes on within 60sec of injection. Treatment is the same regardless - assuming hypotension...I see your point of view.
For the sake of argument how do you know:
-it as an anaphylactic reaction?
One of the top four allergens in the OT. Incidence is greater than Abx, sux, roc, chlorhex, etc. It's not quite as bad as patent blue or fish sperm.-it was the sugamadex that caused the anaphylactic reaction?
Sugammadex is a notorious offender for non-IgE mediated anaphylaxis, which are classically dose dependent reactions.-reducing the dose of the drug would have prevented the reaction?
Regularly give the whole vial. Innert molecule, very little downside. It also gives you a margin of safety against reparalyzation.
Can you define what you mean by inert in this context?
I feel like dosing a medication based on the vial it comes in is silly. Any medication should be given in the lowest dose to achieve the desired effect. Even a "medication" like normal saline has far reaching consequences if a patient gets too much of it -- why wouldn't you believe the same for sugammadex? If you have a reason to think that they may have a recrudescence of their neuromuscular blockade, fine, give a larger dose. But just because you haven't observed any downside to giving 200 mg to every patient you come across, doesn't mean that potential downsides don't exist.
There was a recent post that talked about how you should read the package insert before giving any medication. So, have you read the package insert to sugammadex? I recommend you do. Anaphylaxis, as someone mentioned, can occur. But what about coagulopathy? Bradycardia? Cardiac arrest? Again, all known side effects. The package insert also tells you how you should dose the medication.
The fact that some people think they understand the pharmacology and interactions of the drug better than the manufacturer (who, by the way, would love to tell you to give a mega dose of their medication to everyone since it just means more $$$ for them) is the height of hubris.
was that because it was overdosed or not related to dosing? How long did it last and how did you treat?It is definitely not an inert drug. Agree that sugammadex should be dosed appropriately based on TOF/accelerometer monitoring.
Yes I've seen rapid, profound bradycardia from sugammadex
was that because it was overdosed or not related to dosing? How long did it last and how did you treat?
Sugammadex is a notorious offender for non-IgE mediated anaphylaxis, which are classically dose dependent reactions.
4 mg/kg dose sugammadex
Treated with ephedrine and atropine
HR went down to 20s within 30 seconds of giving sugammadex. NIBP couldn't read. Pulse was weak.
I would agree with your assessment if what you claim is correct.
So I guess all that's left is to convince me there is good scientific evidence that what is quoted is true.
Show me the evidence, I will concede to your assertions.
What is the resistance to checking twitches and doing some basic arithmetic?
Can you define what you mean by inert in this context?
I feel like dosing a medication based on the vial it comes in is silly. Any medication should be given in the lowest dose to achieve the desired effect. Even a "medication" like normal saline has far reaching consequences if a patient gets too much of it -- why wouldn't you believe the same for sugammadex? If you have a reason to think that they may have a recrudescence of their neuromuscular blockade, fine, give a larger dose. But just because you haven't observed any downside to giving 200 mg to every patient you come across, doesn't mean that potential downsides don't exist.
There was a recent post that talked about how you should read the package insert before giving any medication. So, have you read the package insert to sugammadex? I recommend you do. Anaphylaxis, as someone mentioned, can occur. But what about coagulopathy? Bradycardia? Cardiac arrest? Again, all known side effects. The package insert also tells you how you should dose the medication.
The fact that some people think they understand the pharmacology and interactions of the drug better than the manufacturer (who, by the way, would love to tell you to give a mega dose of their medication to everyone since it just means more $$$ for them) is the height of hubris.
This is what I’m confused about. There is the potential for dose-related complications (anaphylaxis, bradycardia, etc), while giving a larger-than-required dose offers little to no benefit. Isn’t that enough reason to err on the side of caution and give a calculated dose? What is the resistance to checking twitches and doing some basic arithmetic?
Can you define what you mean by inert in this context?
I feel like dosing a medication based on the vial it comes in is silly.
The sugammadex molecule does not produce any metabolites. Source, Under metabolism and elimination.
Definition of inert: An inert chemical is one that is stable and unreactive under specified conditions.
The molecule itself is a chelator, it does not react with enzymes in the body to form metabolites, (like morphine).
Who claimed to know the pharmacology and drug interactions better than the manufacturer? Asking someone a question, not waiting for them to respond, misquoting someone's claims, then making exaggerated assertions based on those misquoted claims - that is the height of hubris.
Discussion purpose: weighing the risk and benefit of larger than recommended dose of sugammadex.
For relatablility, let's assume a fake pt of 75kg male. 2mg/kg would be 150mg (1.5cc) of sugammadex. 200mg (2.0cc) would be 2.67mg/kg.
Benefit is clear: you give more molecules to have a "sink" for the aminosteroid paralytics. Rocuronium affinity to sugammadex is well established, but what if you gave your patient vecuronium instead? What if i stimulated a muscle on one of the twitches and the pt had 1 twitch instead of 2? surely having 2.67mg/kg of sugammadex instead of 2.0 mg/kg of sugammadex (all other things equal) lessen the chance of residual blockade?
Risk is less clear:
Total list of risks: anaphylaxis, legal risk from being sued for chelating birth controls, chelating a SERM-Toremifene, treatment for breast cancer. Finally, these ominous "bradycardic" episodes.
In my institution, we had 30+ ORs, with approx 80-100 GETA cases daily. Majority of them used sugammadex, there was 1 event of a bradycardic episode in the last 4 years (described above). There was about 6-10 reintubations in the PACU during the same period (however, it's unclear to me how many of these are due to paralysis rather than other reasons).
Another thing to consider: in giving the slight higher dose I can observe the immediate risk of bradycardia. I will be observing and ready to act immediately. However, that is not true for the reparalyzation scenario. It will occur in the PACU which is less controlled than the OR.
Furthermore, where did this number of 2mg/kg come from? let's be honest, the manufacture probably rounded this number to say the least. What if the optimal number is 1.7mg/kg? clearly if they are willing to round the numbers that probably tells me differences of .5mg/kg is not really significant. (this is purly conjecture. no evidence for this whatsoever).
Elijah McLain and I agree. That said, I’ve never given 2340mg of Ancef or 3mg of Zofran.
In that case, i like to make sure they can trigger on PSV and paralytic hasn’t been given recently. Then give 4/kg. Otherwise wait til drapes are down.Just to preface, I agree with you 100%. This is true in the ideal world, but sometimes you don't have access to the arms or even the face (BIS + cerebral ox), or batteries are low on the twitch monitors, or they straight up don't work even after the second or third time you've called for another one from anesthesia techs who don't want to do their jobs. When the drapes come down and you're trying to keep the room moving, it becomes a lot more difficult. I'm speaking as somebody will check twitches on every single patient if logistically possible and give twitch-/weight-based dosing of reversal every time, even in the cardiac ORs.