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So the way I learned from my nueroanatomy class was that if the tongue is deviated to the right that means the lesion of the CN12 is also on the right side. But here is what Kaplan says:
"Generally, no other cranial deficits will be seen with corticobulbar lesions because virtually every other cranial nerve nucleus is bilaterally innervated. In some idviduals, the hypoglossal nucleus may receive mainly contralateral corticobulbar innervation. If these corticobulbar fibers are lesioned, the tongue muscles undergo transient weakness without atrophy or fasciculations and may deviate away from the inured corticobulbar fibers. If, for example, the lesion is in corticobulbar fibers on the left, there is transient weaknesss of the right tongue muscles, causing a deviation of the tongue toward the right side upton protrusion."
So did I get this wrong from my neuroanatomy class? What am I missing here?
Many thanks in advance.
"Generally, no other cranial deficits will be seen with corticobulbar lesions because virtually every other cranial nerve nucleus is bilaterally innervated. In some idviduals, the hypoglossal nucleus may receive mainly contralateral corticobulbar innervation. If these corticobulbar fibers are lesioned, the tongue muscles undergo transient weakness without atrophy or fasciculations and may deviate away from the inured corticobulbar fibers. If, for example, the lesion is in corticobulbar fibers on the left, there is transient weaknesss of the right tongue muscles, causing a deviation of the tongue toward the right side upton protrusion."
So did I get this wrong from my neuroanatomy class? What am I missing here?
Many thanks in advance.
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