Triad for transtentorial/uncal herniation

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loveoforganic

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Just want to sure this up:

Increased ICP due to mass effect --> herniation ipsilateral to region of mass

- Compression of III ipsilateral to the mass -> lateral strabismus and mydriasis ipsilateral to the mass

- Compression of PCA ipsilateral to the mass -> Ischemia of the primary visual cortex ipsilateral to the mass -> Homonymous hemianopsia contralateral to the mass

- Compression of the crus cerebri contralateral to the mass (Kernohan's notch) -> Hemiparesis (more or less from the neck down) ipsilateral to the mass

Thanks
 
Just want to sure this up:

Increased ICP due to mass effect --> herniation ipsilateral to region of mass

- Compression of III ipsilateral to the mass -> lateral strabismus and mydriasis ipsilateral to the mass

- Compression of PCA ipsilateral to the mass -> Ischemia of the primary visual cortex ipsilateral to the mass -> Homonymous hemianopsia contralateral to the mass

- Compression of the crus cerebri contralateral to the mass (Kernohan's notch) -> Hemiparesis (more or less from the neck down) ipsilateral to the mass

Thanks

Bringing this up again because NBME 7 had a question where the fellow with uncal herniation had contralateral paresis... anyone else catch that? Does this mean uncal herniations can cause both?
 
Was it in the context of an epidural hematoma? I've seen this alternate. All my step 2 sources are divided right down the middle on whether paresis is ipsilateral or contralateral in that scenario. The ipsilateral occurs by the mechanism outlined above. The contralateral occurs, I would guess, by direct compression of the motor cortex by the hematoma.
 
I learned that initially you get contralateral hemiparesis and can develop ipsi hemiparesis if it is severs enough b/c of kernohans notch
 
I learned that initially you get contralateral hemiparesis and can develop ipsi hemiparesis if it is severs enough b/c of kernohans notch

Yeah, I mean feasibly it could cause both, depending on how far the uncus herniated. I just figured that if there was a "classic triad" it meant that the ipsilateral paresis was overwhelmingly more common than contralateral (in which case Step 1 would likely present it that way hah)
 
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