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40 y/o male construction worker presents with complaints of back pain, left knee pain, and left ankle pain. His back pain has been "present since birth" and he was diagnosed "at some point as having something wrong with his vertebrae" but notes that "they told me that it shouldn't cause me any pain." He has noticed pain in the past when lifting extremely heavy objects but no one has ever been able to diagnose or treat his pain effectively. He has had numerous MRIs that have all been read as normal per the patient with his last MRI being a year and half ago. The pain is random in occurence and used to occur about 2 weeks/6 weeks up until he was in a car accident 6 months ago from which time he says that the pain has increased in frequency to 4/6 weeks but that the actual severity of pain is relatively unchanged. After this car accident he was taken to the ED but didn't know what was done but admits that he may have had a CT scan; he was released the same day as visit to the ED, though, and nothing further has been done. He is currently on Flexeril for his pain but notes that it provides no relief. He denies that he needs specific pain meds but just wants "anything that will stop the pain."
Regarding his knee pain, he states that 8 years ago he fell off of his bike and had to undergo a surgery to remove part of his meniscus. He states that post operatively he was never informed to keep weight off the leg and as such "was active on it for 6 months because the surgeon never told me i shouldn't be using it."
Regarding his ankle pain, he states that 2 years ago he suffered a "severe" sprain and since then has had intermittent pain. He notes that he has seen other people about this problem and they have felt crepitance on exam but said that it shouldn't be causing him pain. He also notes that he's sprained his ankle in the past but "not as severely" and insists that a sprain would not account for his current ankle pain because that pain should not last this long.
On physical exam, the lower lumbar back, midline has point tendereness to palpation. The lateral spinal musculature has minimal tenderness. His left knee has moderate pain to palpation on the medial joint aspect. Valgus and varus forces were unable to elicit pain. No crepitance was noted at the knee joint and full range of motion was appreciated. The patients left ankle had mild crepitance and pain with inversion but was otherwise unremarkable.
Past medical history is unremarkable except for undiagnosed "asthma" that the patient has never seen a physician for and for some stomach aches.
Family history is remarkable for fibromyalgia which the patient is concerned he may now have.
So... with this all said, what would your next step be and what's your current differential in order of likelihood? I'm curious to see what you guys think, thanks for participating.
Regarding his knee pain, he states that 8 years ago he fell off of his bike and had to undergo a surgery to remove part of his meniscus. He states that post operatively he was never informed to keep weight off the leg and as such "was active on it for 6 months because the surgeon never told me i shouldn't be using it."
Regarding his ankle pain, he states that 2 years ago he suffered a "severe" sprain and since then has had intermittent pain. He notes that he has seen other people about this problem and they have felt crepitance on exam but said that it shouldn't be causing him pain. He also notes that he's sprained his ankle in the past but "not as severely" and insists that a sprain would not account for his current ankle pain because that pain should not last this long.
On physical exam, the lower lumbar back, midline has point tendereness to palpation. The lateral spinal musculature has minimal tenderness. His left knee has moderate pain to palpation on the medial joint aspect. Valgus and varus forces were unable to elicit pain. No crepitance was noted at the knee joint and full range of motion was appreciated. The patients left ankle had mild crepitance and pain with inversion but was otherwise unremarkable.
Past medical history is unremarkable except for undiagnosed "asthma" that the patient has never seen a physician for and for some stomach aches.
Family history is remarkable for fibromyalgia which the patient is concerned he may now have.
So... with this all said, what would your next step be and what's your current differential in order of likelihood? I'm curious to see what you guys think, thanks for participating.