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So I was treating a lady for chlamydia cervicitis (presumed of course) yesterday and she is pregnant. She is also allergic to macrolides. So while looking for an alternative to quinolones, tetracyclines, and macrolides, I discovered that the CDC recommendations and the Sanford guide recommend amoxicillin. Recalling from the remote past that chlamydia is an obligate intracellular organism without a cell wall, I became confused as to the mechanism of how amoxicillin (a beta-lactamase drug) would be useful against chlamydia.
Am I missing something?
Am I missing something?