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I read two contradictory things and I would like to know ppl's input on it. I remember reading somewhere that if you inhibit the ACE then there will be a lack of depolarization because the presynaptic cleft needs to reuptake the ACH and only one action potential can be done per receptor on the membrane.
However, in another passage it says.. blocking the reuptake of NE (norepinephrine) into the nerve terminal, leave more NE in the synapse where it can continue to stimulate the receptors on the member. Increasing sympathetic responses.
Common sense leads me to believe the second over the first, however, this may be a question of difference between ACH vs. NE making both statements correct. Does anyone else know which is right?
However, in another passage it says.. blocking the reuptake of NE (norepinephrine) into the nerve terminal, leave more NE in the synapse where it can continue to stimulate the receptors on the member. Increasing sympathetic responses.
Common sense leads me to believe the second over the first, however, this may be a question of difference between ACH vs. NE making both statements correct. Does anyone else know which is right?