Bipolar 1 Mania - Refusing Depakote and lithium, maxed on Zyprexa, thoughts?

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FI-Prexa

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I have a 60 something male with history of bipolar 1 disorder. Started on Zyprexa when they came in, is now sleeping and not receiving PRNs anymore. However, still very grandiose (knows several famous people, is writing a new Bible) and paranoid that his family is conspiring against him. Remains pressured and tangential. They are voluntary and up to 20 mg of Zyprexa, but refusing Depakote or lithium. Started Lamictal as they tolerated in the past but I know its not going to be as helpful for acute mania, plus concerns about length of titration.

I'm considering further pushing Zyprexa beyond 20 mg while slowly titrating Lamictal. I have not seen much benefit from Tegretol in these situations historically but then again have tempered expectations for Lamictal. Could consider a benzo but he is sleeping, not agitated (only with me as he knows I don't think he knows all these famous people).

Thoughts?

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I would probably do carbamazepine over Lamictal in terms of adding a second agent, but... another thought is you didn't say how long he's been admitted. If he's improving and sleeping on zyprexa 20 he's probably going to continue improving. The pressured timelines of inpatient medicine are one of the reasons I don't like it. I remember the days of residency when utilization review would breathe down our necks "can you make a med change so we can justify the admission?" for a patient who came in completely separated from reality and is improving nicely and really just needs a safe space and more time on the current med.
 
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I would probably do carbamazepine over Lamictal in terms of adding a second agent, but... another thought is you didn't say how long he's been admitted. If he's improving and sleeping on zyprexa 20 he's probably going to continue improving. The pressured timelines of inpatient medicine are one of the reasons I don't like it. I remember the days of residency when utilization review would breathe down our necks "can you make a med change so we can justify the admission?" for a patient who came in completely separated from reality and is improving nicely and really just needs a safe space and more time on the current med.

He is going on two weeks now. Yeah that was my other thought is just giving him more time. He wants to leave but wants to remain voluntary. I keep telling him how to sign a three day letter, would just move forward with probate. I've also considered switching antipsychotics but not sure if I can really expect better efficacy with something different other than maybe clozapine.

As a young attending, it still makes me nervous when people take a while to improve. Likely my own insecurities.
 
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Focus on the standard of care. Mania can take a while to subside.
Why would you chose lamcital over tegretol, when there's evidence for the latter and none for the former?
Really, your 'experience' should be your last resort.
 
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Yeah I don't see an indication for continued hospitalization, especially one that's acceptable to insurance companies.

He's sleeping, he's safe, he just believes things that are weird. With adequate social support he sounds like an ideal outpatient with residual symptoms that would likely resolve. Any med changes can be deferred to OP.
 
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if hes at his baseline then i agree this will probably be outpatient's job. Some people don't have the best baseline, you can't make a 1980 ford escort into a 2023 ferrari. Hes bipolar 1 and not schizoaffective? He sounds like a community psych type patient who may need something like clozapine if no contraindications and family are supportive
 
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He is going on two weeks now. Yeah that was my other thought is just giving him more time. He wants to leave but wants to remain voluntary. I keep telling him how to sign a three day letter, would just move forward with probate. I've also considered switching antipsychotics but not sure if I can really expect better efficacy with something different other than maybe clozapine.

As a young attending, it still makes me nervous when people take a while to improve. Likely my own insecurities.
If you are seeing clear improvement, I for sure would not switch out the zyprexa. You could consider adding in some Haldol instead of one of the other mood stabilizers. But it does overall sound like someone who mostly needs time, which is one thing the system often makes it hardest to give. All the momentum is towards making other types of moves.
 
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I would not say 20 is maxed on Zyprexa. Patient's can go up to 30 (or even 40 in split dosages) on Zyprexa and finding out if that makes a difference while on an IP unit is the perfect time to do that.

Clearly the adjunctive agents of choice here are in the Lithium, VPA, Tegretol arena. If he is not capable of exploring why he has the opposition to the two former, the later is the easy choice. Lamictal is doing literally nothing in this scenario if you just started it and does basically nothing for mania even fully titrated.

The big concern here is the paranoia about family, people are saying to DC him but if he won't accept help from family he could decompensate quite quickly. I would certainly like to see how a family session went at a minimum unless DC is to a SNF or something.
 
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Agree that this may just take more time, but could try a short-term augmentation with something that will hit D2 a little harder like Haldol or risperdal with the plan to taper or d/c outpatient once more stable. What's his reason for not wanting depakote? Sounds like an ideal patient to start at a solid dose and allow OP to taper in a couple of months. Could he be amenable if he is reassured that it would only be a temporary med?
 
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I would not say 20 is maxed on Zyprexa. Patient's can go up to 30 (or even 40 in split dosages) on Zyprexa and finding out if that makes a difference while on an IP unit is the perfect time to do that.

Clearly the adjunctive agents of choice here are in the Lithium, VPA, Tegretol arena. If he is not capable of exploring why he has the opposition to the two former, the later is the easy choice. Lamictal is doing literally nothing in this scenario if you just started it and does basically nothing for mania even fully titrated.

The big concern here is the paranoia about family, people are saying to DC him but if he won't accept help from family he could decompensate quite quickly. I would certainly like to see how a family session went at a minimum unless DC is to a SNF or something.

Zyprexa is actually one of the few antipsychotics with evidence for a linear dose-relationship with efficacy even at the higher doses. At least for acute psychosis.
It definitely makes sense to up the dose before resorting to another antipsychotic, + adding a mood stabilizer.
I agree, that this guy does not sound dischargeable. I understand the pressure of trying to discharge patients and one can feel like a failure if patients aren't getting better quickly, but the reality is that mania can take weeks to come down. Your defense is making sure you stick to the standard of care.
 
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Why would you chose lamcital over tegretol, when there's evidence for the latter and none for the former?

I get what you're saying but I also get the hesitation to start tegretol in a 60 year old , as you know, tegretol interacts with tons of medications including itself. It's kind of a nightmare if patient is on important non-psychiatric medications managed by cardiology, etc.

He wants to leave but wants to remain voluntary.

Isn't this a contradiction? Not trying to assign any blame, and maybe things work differently in my state vs. other states, but who admits a delusional manic patient voluntarily? The patient isn't going to have the capacity to understand their illness. I can only talk generally here, but based on this limited information, if patient continued to refuse lithium or depakote (and it is medically safe for them to take one), I would tend to make the patient involuntary, testify in court, give IM backup of small dose of zyprexa if refusal of oral depakote or lithium.

now sleeping and not receiving PRNs anymore. However, still very grandiose (knows several famous people, is writing a new Bible) and paranoid that his family is conspiring against him. Remains pressured and tangential. ... Could consider a benzo but he is sleeping, not agitated (only with me as he knows I don't think he knows all these famous people).
Yeah I don't see an indication for continued hospitalization, especially one that's acceptable to insurance companies.
What?? If someone is paranoid that their family is conspiring against them, and gets agitated over something as minor as someone doubting whether he knows famous people that he doesn't actually know, I feel really, really bad about their safety outpatient.
There's a lot of missing information so I don't want to speculate too much, but from what I am reading, discharging this patient at this stage of illness is at best is a disservice to the patient, their family, and their outpatient psychiatrist, and may prove to be downright dangerous.
Manic patients notoriously lack insight (such as failing to recognize that they are displaying signs of illness) and display poor judgment (such as stopping meds and refusing suggested meds) and the patient is still displaying signs of mania -- pressured speech, tangentiality, delusions, situational agitation. Are the delusions long standing for years? If this is their baseline, would they not need guardianship?

I would be interested to hear whether anyone believes that benzodiazepines have inherent anti-manic properties, besides simply their sedative effects.
 
who admits a delusional manic patient voluntarily? The patient isn't going to have the capacity to understand their illness.
In my state there is an explicit statutory obligation to admit patient's voluntarily if they request admission or such status (and to offer and encourage voluntary admission to the patient if you are a state facility*), an explicit statutory prohibition to require capacity for voluntary admission, and minimal criteria for suitability for voluntary status.

*One could make an argument that you are in some way obliged to do this in all settings, as voluntary is less restrictive setting than involuntary
 
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In my state there is an explicit statutory obligation to admit patient's voluntarily if they request admission or such status (and to offer and encourage voluntary admission to the patient if you are a state facility*), an explicit statutory prohibition to require capacity for voluntary admission, and minimal criteria for suitability for voluntary status.

*One could make an argument that you are in some way obliged to do this in all settings, as voluntary is less restrictive setting than involuntary

RIght and in many states involuntary admission is linked to things like having to report the admission to various agencies, not being allowed to own a firearm, etc. It can actually be quite damaging for someone to be involuntarily admitted, especially if they could have gotten by with a voluntary admission.

It's more of a pain but you can always commit someone to involuntary if they try to bail before you think they're ready. There's usually a provision that they need to give X days notice if they want to leave AMA if they're a voluntary patient to give time for to file for a probate hearing.

Isn't this a contradiction? Not trying to assign any blame, and maybe things work differently in my state vs. other states, but who admits a delusional manic patient voluntarily? The patient isn't going to have the capacity to understand their illness. I can only talk generally here, but based on this limited information, if patient continued to refuse lithium or depakote (and it is medically safe for them to take one), I would tend to make the patient involuntary, testify in court, give IM backup of small dose of zyprexa if refusal of oral depakote or lithium.

Also, not sure how making him involuntary is going to help with the lithium/depakote problem. Making someone involuntary is way different than court ordered medication administration and even then it's next to impossible to do oral court ordered meds if the patient truly refuses...you can't exactly shove them in his mouth. I mean it sounds like the guy is still willing to take zyprexa, so just up the baseline zyprexa dose...don't just jab the guy with IM zyprexa involuntarily because he won't take the oral meds you want.
 
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I would not say 20 is maxed on Zyprexa. Patient's can go up to 30 (or even 40 in split dosages) on Zyprexa and finding out if that makes a difference while on an IP unit is the perfect time to do that.

.

Agree that this may just take more time, but could try a short-term augmentation with something that will hit D2 a little harder like Haldol or risperdal with the plan to taper or d/c outpatient once more stable. What's his reason for not wanting depakote? Sounds like an ideal patient to start at a solid dose and allow OP to taper in a couple of months. Could he be amenable if he is reassured that it would only be a temporary med?
Gotta ageee with both of these. Zyprexa isn’t maxed at 20 imo. I work with a lot of very chronic and sick people and I will routinely hit 30 on Zyprexa where I get more benefit than 20 and I have had a few that refuse everything else but agreeable to over max up to 40 and again works well.

Also augmentation with a more typical antipsychotic I like loxapine with Zyprexa a lot again when I can’t have a mood stabilizer for one reason or another.
 
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RIght and in many states involuntary admission is linked to things like having to report the admission to various agencies, not being allowed to own a firearm, etc. It can actually be quite damaging for someone to be involuntarily admitted, especially if they could have gotten by with a voluntary admission.

It's more of a pain but you can always commit someone to involuntary if they try to bail before you think they're ready. There's usually a provision that they need to give X days notice if they want to leave AMA if they're a voluntary patient to give time for to file for a probate hearing.



Also, not sure how making him involuntary is going to help with the lithium/depakote problem. Making someone involuntary is way different than court ordered medication administration and even then it's next to impossible to do oral court ordered meds if the patient truly refuses...you can't exactly shove them in his mouth. I mean it sounds like the guy is still willing to take zyprexa, so just up the baseline zyprexa dose...don't just jab the guy with IM zyprexa involuntarily because he won't take the oral meds you want.
It's really interesting to hear how things are done in other states. In my state, an involuntary commitment is used when the patient presents a likelihood of imminent harm to self/others due to their mental illness, and lacks capacity to consent to recommended treatment. The lack of capacity could be due to not demonstrating understanding of their illness, not demonstrating appropriate reasoning, etc.
Based on OP description, the patient is delusional and therefore doesn't understand his illness. The fact that patient is refusing recommended treatment (lithium or depakote) for ??? reason (we weren't given that info) is concerning though he may have a good reason that we just don't know about. However, I kind of doubt it since it sounds like he is still manic and psychotic.

Yes, involuntary commitment can be linked with things like not being allowed to have a concealed carry permit. However, I posit that this is not "damaging for someone" but good for the safety of the patient and others. People do erratic things when they are manic that they would never do if they weren't manic, and though the typical bipolar patient may be loathe to admit they have bipolar disorder, would be horrified if they harmed someone when manic/psychotic and later regained insight and realized what they did? And what of the depressive stages when suicide by firearm is a risk? Is it wrong for me to not lose any sleep about a gun being taken from someone with dx of bipolar 1 who has displayed mania with psychotic features including paranoia?

If I place an involuntary hold, in my state it is active immediately for a certain period of time, and after that (relatively short) period of time I will go before a judge and petition for additional time, and if granted this commitment allows forcing medication in case of patient refusal. IM backup medication need not be the same medication as the refused medication. Time and time again, I've seen that manic patients will take oral meds (the ones they were just refusing) rather than an injection. In some cases it might take a day, but they get sick of the injections and would rather take oral. I'm aware that you can't shove lithium down someone's throat LOL.
 
Yes, involuntary commitment can be linked with things like not being allowed to have a concealed carry permit. However, I posit that this is not "damaging for someone" but good for the safety of the patient and others. People do erratic things when they are manic that they would never do if they weren't manic, and though the typical bipolar patient may be loathe to admit they have bipolar disorder, would be horrified if they harmed someone when manic/psychotic and later regained insight and realized what they did? And what of the depressive stages when suicide by firearm is a risk? Is it wrong for me to not lose any sleep about a gun being taken from someone with dx of bipolar 1 who has displayed mania with psychotic features including paranoia?

If I place an involuntary hold, in my state it is active immediately for a certain period of time, and after that (relatively short) period of time I will go before a judge and petition for additional time, and if granted this commitment allows forcing medication in case of patient refusal. IM backup medication need not be the same medication as the refused medication. Time and time again, I've seen that manic patients will take oral meds (the ones they were just refusing) rather than an injection. In some cases it might take a day, but they get sick of the injections and would rather take oral. I'm aware that you can't shove lithium down someone's throat LOL.

So no it’s not concealed carry it’s ownership completely by federal law going forward. I’m not a gun nut but I also wouldn’t take it lightly that I’m severely curtailing a persons constitutional right (along with you know their current right to liberty by keeping them involuntarily held in a hospital). I agree about minimizing the danger someone poses to themselves or others going forward overall and lack of access to firearms may be an important part of that.

This is again a situation where an involuntary admission could probably be used but isn’t necessarily required. Certainly in all 3 states I’ve been a resident/fellow/attending I’m not aware of any explicit provision that someone needs capacity for voluntarily admission although that’s likely assumed. However, one could argue that in the broader medical system we admit or do procedures on thousands of delirious and demented old people who technically lack capacity for those medical decisions every day.

I’ve also seen the same thing with IM PRN meds or that the PRNs eventually make them stable enough to agree to take PO. However, in this case that wouldn’t matter. He’s already willing to take PO zyprexa and wiling to stay in the hospital. So it’s not clear here what making the patient involuntary would do for you.

Are you saying tell him you’re going to tell him you’re going to stick him with IM zyprexa if he doesn’t take PO lithium or Depakote? Cause that’s kind of messed up in a different way man. Basically you’re threatening him with violence. From an ethical perspective you might as well show him an empty needle and say “I’m going to stick you with this unless you take this other oral medicine”. He’s already willing to take the PO version of the IM med at higher doses so it’s not clear what clinical benefit you get from additional IM doses aside from essentially threatening him with them unless he’s an acute risk of harm to himself or others.

Now if you were trying to get him to take PO haldol and he was refusing for instance and you got a court order for involuntary meds, then yes it makes sense to give him IM doses and then likely switch him to Haldol dec. that’s an entirely different scenario.
 
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I would probably do carbamazepine over Lamictal in terms of adding a second agent, but... another thought is you didn't say how long he's been admitted. If he's improving and sleeping on zyprexa 20 he's probably going to continue improving. The pressured timelines of inpatient medicine are one of the reasons I don't like it. I remember the days of residency when utilization review would breathe down our necks "can you make a med change so we can justify the admission?" for a patient who came in completely separated from reality and is improving nicely and really just needs a safe space and more time on the current med.

Why not use trileptal over tegretol to avoid DDI?
 
I get what you're saying but I also get the hesitation to start tegretol in a 60 year old , as you know, tegretol interacts with tons of medications including itself. It's kind of a nightmare if patient is on important non-psychiatric medications managed by cardiology, etc.



Isn't this a contradiction? Not trying to assign any blame, and maybe things work differently in my state vs. other states, but who admits a delusional manic patient voluntarily? The patient isn't going to have the capacity to understand their illness. I can only talk generally here, but based on this limited information, if patient continued to refuse lithium or depakote (and it is medically safe for them to take one), I would tend to make the patient involuntary, testify in court, give IM backup of small dose of zyprexa if refusal of oral depakote or lithium.



What?? If someone is paranoid that their family is conspiring against them, and gets agitated over something as minor as someone doubting whether he knows famous people that he doesn't actually know, I feel really, really bad about their safety outpatient.
There's a lot of missing information so I don't want to speculate too much, but from what I am reading, discharging this patient at this stage of illness is at best is a disservice to the patient, their family, and their outpatient psychiatrist, and may prove to be downright dangerous.
Manic patients notoriously lack insight (such as failing to recognize that they are displaying signs of illness) and display poor judgment (such as stopping meds and refusing suggested meds) and the patient is still displaying signs of mania -- pressured speech, tangentiality, delusions, situational agitation. Are the delusions long standing for years? If this is their baseline, would they not need guardianship?

I would be interested to hear whether anyone believes that benzodiazepines have inherent anti-manic properties, besides simply their sedative effects.
you're using a fair amount of ifs to come to this conclusion regarding forcing someone to be hospitalized in a non-medically necessary way.

Saying that someone is "voluntary" because "they don't want to be involuntary" is incredibly misleading. That's involuntary but without the requisite paperwork. It's an abuse of our power as psychiatrists to trick patients into saying they're voluntary to avoid the consequences of being involuntary. If they're voluntary that implies no coercion. No "if you don't sign in as voluntary I will fill out involuntary paperwork." None of that "if you accept PO then I won't stab you with an IM, but if you refuse the PO I will pin you down and stab you." That's coercive. It's clearly coercive. Same thing with "shows of force" that involve having two big techs stand next to you and block the patient in the room while they're being confronted.

Paranoia is incredibly common in outpatient settings. Any psychiatrist who honestly believes they don't discharge people with residual paranoia is either a fool or lying. While paranoia increases risk for violence it is not in itself adequate to justify an admission. If it were then there would be no chronic psychosis in outpatient settings. Paranoia tends to resolve over time, and forcing someone to stay in a fabricated setting like a hospital does not help them resolve their paranoia that will resume the second they are around family members. This is one of the major reasons that extended hospitalization simply aren't justifiable (to insurance or within our society in general) for the overwhelming majority of people with paranoia.

Indication for prolonged hospitalization is rather straightforward: risk of harm to self or others is not reasonably mitigated yet but continued hospitalization will mitigate this risk. So someone with paranoia AND homicidal ideation with intent and plan would qualify but paranoia while taking care of oneself and not having active thoughts of harming people is far more likely to be an outpatient problem. Someone who just can't take care of themselves at all will likely qualify.

Tricking someone into being a voluntary patient for longer than is medically necessary has many ethical drawbacks. As a physician billing for services you are directly profiting off of this abuse of power. The patient is put in an uncomfortable place where they don't want to defy the doctor, meaning they may be on the hook for $20k+ in charges after their insurance stops paying. I'd say this would contribute a fair amount more to potential acting out than being allowed to return to their home.

It's important to educate the patient and family regarding low expressed emotion and avoiding arguments. If the family is going to argue with the patient repeatedly in an emotionally charged way then they need to be told that is counterproductive. It doesn't matter how many drugs you give someone or how long you lock them up, if the family will instigate then that person will be at risk for decompensation. Which is better long-term: having someone spend 20 minutes talking to the family about this or forcing another day of hospitalization?

As for going above and beyond 20 mg of Zyprexa per day: as long as it's being tolerated that's fine. I've talked before about my experience with 40-60 mg per day of Zyprexa with chronic inpatients in a forensic state hospital setting. There is a very small minority who benefit from doses above 20 mg per day for extended periods of time. Usually these are people who one might suspect of being rapid metabolizers: the effect seems to really wear off in 6-8 hours requiring BID or TID dosing, they never seem sedated, or they aren't gaining weight. Sometimes there are the people who didn't gain weight at 20 but did at 45 per day, but they really do have much better symptom control at 45. Sadly, in my experience, most of the people who go up to 40, 45, or 60 mg per day didn't have an opportunity to respond at 20, 15, 10, or even 5 mg per day. 2 weeks is a long time and there's literature to back up increasing that early, but there's also a ton of experience that says that after 3 months 20 mg really might have done just as great a job as bumping it up higher did. It's important to remember to try decreasing back to 20 mg after a short while to make sure the patient isn't being chronically overmedicated.

There's also some great merit for short-term use of higher doses of Zyprexa (starting at 60 for a few days, then down to 45, then 40, then 30, then 20 with the plan to stay at 20 mg long-term). This is usually for patients who aren't sleeping, who aren't caring for themselves, or who are actively homicidal with repeated attempts to act on those urges. Not residual paranoia and grandiosity in someone who's eating, sleeping, and not getting into fights.
 
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Where I am geographically, the first thing the judge would ask in a probate situation is if I have given the patient an opportunity to sign a voluntary form. For forced meds, it would be tough to justify given he is willing to take clinically appropriate (although not optimal) medications for bipolar disorder.

I ended up pushing the Zyprexa further and starting Tegretol. He is starting to loosen his grip on some of these delusions, more easily challenged. He likely just needs more time. I appreciate all the thoughts and recommendations!
 
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Saying that someone is "voluntary" because "they don't want to be involuntary" is incredibly misleading. That's involuntary but without the requisite paperwork. It's an abuse of our power as psychiatrists to trick patients into saying they're voluntary to avoid the consequences of being involuntary. If they're voluntary that implies no coercion. No "if you don't sign in as voluntary I will fill out involuntary paperwork."
"Voluntary" is a locally defined term. This is going to vary state to state, but in my state it would be perfectly valid to inform the patient that if they choose not to be admitted voluntarily they will be committed involuntarily -- voluntary status it is a lesser restriction of liberty with fewer negative consequences. There are some caveats, e.g. you want to be sure that you actually could admit them involuntarily.

Incidentally, can you involuntarily commit patients with capacity to make decision regarding hospitalization in your state? In my state such patients categorically cannot be admitted involuntarily.

None of that "if you accept PO then I won't stab you with an IM, but if you refuse the PO I will pin you down and stab you." That's coercive. It's clearly coercive. Same thing with "shows of force" that involve having two big techs stand next to you and block the patient in the room while they're being confronted.
If you would otherwise give medication over objection (e.g. patient is emergently dangerous), you generally should be coercing patient to take PO if the alternative is restraint+IM - it is less traumatic and less violating of their autonomy.
 
There is no evidence Trileptal is effective in bipolar disorder.
Isn’t it just not as well studied? The APA includes it in their treatment guidelines for Bipolar along with Tegretol. One would think the similarities in molecular structure between the two would make it a reasonable choice
 
If you would otherwise give medication over objection (e.g. patient is emergently dangerous), you generally should be coercing patient to take PO if the alternative is restraint+IM - it is less traumatic and less violating of their autonomy.

I get what you're saying but lithium and depakote are not PRNs.
 
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So no it’s not concealed carry it’s ownership completely by federal law going forward. I’m not a gun nut but I also wouldn’t take it lightly that I’m severely curtailing a persons constitutional right (along with you know their current right to liberty by keeping them involuntarily held in a hospital). I agree about minimizing the danger someone poses to themselves or others going forward overall and lack of access to firearms may be an important part of that.

This is again a situation where an involuntary admission could probably be used but isn’t necessarily required. Certainly in all 3 states I’ve been a resident/fellow/attending I’m not aware of any explicit provision that someone needs capacity for voluntarily admission although that’s likely assumed. However, one could argue that in the broader medical system we admit or do procedures on thousands of delirious and demented old people who technically lack capacity for those medical decisions every day.

I’ve also seen the same thing with IM PRN meds or that the PRNs eventually make them stable enough to agree to take PO. However, in this case that wouldn’t matter. He’s already willing to take PO zyprexa and wiling to stay in the hospital. So it’s not clear here what making the patient involuntary would do for you.

Are you saying tell him you’re going to tell him you’re going to stick him with IM zyprexa if he doesn’t take PO lithium or Depakote? Cause that’s kind of messed up in a different way man. Basically you’re threatening him with violence. From an ethical perspective you might as well show him an empty needle and say “I’m going to stick you with this unless you take this other oral medicine”. He’s already willing to take the PO version of the IM med at higher doses so it’s not clear what clinical benefit you get from additional IM doses aside from essentially threatening him with them unless he’s an acute risk of harm to himself or others.

Now if you were trying to get him to take PO haldol and he was refusing for instance and you got a court order for involuntary meds, then yes it makes sense to give him IM doses and then likely switch him to Haldol dec. that’s an entirely different scenario.
Sounds like your state does things very differently to mine.
As far as this case goes, it seems like Zyprexa is helping a little but not enough. FDA max of Zyprexa is 20mg daily though I can appreciate people’s experiences that higher doses can be more effective. It’s been my experience that severely manic patients need a mood stabilizer, whether that be lithium, Depakote, or tegretol. If someone is manic and refusing meds except zyprexa and it’s at its FDA max dose and they are still delusional with pressured speech and getting agitated with me because I don’t believe their grandiose delusions, then I’m going to add a mood stabilizer. If they are refusing mood stabilizers, then I would go to court and argue for IM backup for refused medications. Can’t get these mood stabilizers IM so I suggested Zyprexa because he is already taking it. Could substitute Haldol or whatever as long as it’s medically safe. You do make a good point about giving IM the same med he’s agreeing to take oral. Now that I reflect on it, it does feel wrong. But I generally don’t consider it “messed up” to treat mania ASAP. Depakote could have likely had him dischargeable in a few days. I’m not sure how everyone is treating manic patients? Do they just agree to whatever you recommend? Because it’s been my experience that they will refuse meds and IM backup is necessary, even if they aren’t violent at that particular time. The longer they are manic, the harder it is to treat.
In my state, this patient would have been admitted involuntarily if they came in manic with psychotic features. It still seems they lack capacity due to their delusions and possibly wanting to leave (?), and if that’s the case then they should be involuntary as a matter of principle.
 
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you're using a fair amount of ifs to come to this conclusion regarding forcing someone to be hospitalized in a non-medically necessary way.

Saying that someone is "voluntary" because "they don't want to be involuntary" is incredibly misleading. That's involuntary but without the requisite paperwork. It's an abuse of our power as psychiatrists to trick patients into saying they're voluntary to avoid the consequences of being involuntary. If they're voluntary that implies no coercion. No "if you don't sign in as voluntary I will fill out involuntary paperwork." None of that "if you accept PO then I won't stab you with an IM, but if you refuse the PO I will pin you down and stab you." That's coercive. It's clearly coercive. Same thing with "shows of force" that involve having two big techs stand next to you and block the patient in the room while they're being confronted.

Paranoia is incredibly common in outpatient settings. Any psychiatrist who honestly believes they don't discharge people with residual paranoia is either a fool or lying. While paranoia increases risk for violence it is not in itself adequate to justify an admission. If it were then there would be no chronic psychosis in outpatient settings. Paranoia tends to resolve over time, and forcing someone to stay in a fabricated setting like a hospital does not help them resolve their paranoia that will resume the second they are around family members. This is one of the major reasons that extended hospitalization simply aren't justifiable (to insurance or within our society in general) for the overwhelming majority of people with paranoia.

Indication for prolonged hospitalization is rather straightforward: risk of harm to self or others is not reasonably mitigated yet but continued hospitalization will mitigate this risk. So someone with paranoia AND homicidal ideation with intent and plan would qualify but paranoia while taking care of oneself and not having active thoughts of harming people is far more likely to be an outpatient problem. Someone who just can't take care of themselves at all will likely qualify.

Tricking someone into being a voluntary patient for longer than is medically necessary has many ethical drawbacks. As a physician billing for services you are directly profiting off of this abuse of power. The patient is put in an uncomfortable place where they don't want to defy the doctor, meaning they may be on the hook for $20k+ in charges after their insurance stops paying. I'd say this would contribute a fair amount more to potential acting out than being allowed to return to their home.

It's important to educate the patient and family regarding low expressed emotion and avoiding arguments. If the family is going to argue with the patient repeatedly in an emotionally charged way then they need to be told that is counterproductive. It doesn't matter how many drugs you give someone or how long you lock them up, if the family will instigate then that person will be at risk for decompensation. Which is better long-term: having someone spend 20 minutes talking to the family about this or forcing another day of hospitalization?

As for going above and beyond 20 mg of Zyprexa per day: as long as it's being tolerated that's fine. I've talked before about my experience with 40-60 mg per day of Zyprexa with chronic inpatients in a forensic state hospital setting. There is a very small minority who benefit from doses above 20 mg per day for extended periods of time. Usually these are people who one might suspect of being rapid metabolizers: the effect seems to really wear off in 6-8 hours requiring BID or TID dosing, they never seem sedated, or they aren't gaining weight. Sometimes there are the people who didn't gain weight at 20 but did at 45 per day, but they really do have much better symptom control at 45. Sadly, in my experience, most of the people who go up to 40, 45, or 60 mg per day didn't have an opportunity to respond at 20, 15, 10, or even 5 mg per day. 2 weeks is a long time and there's literature to back up increasing that early, but there's also a ton of experience that says that after 3 months 20 mg really might have done just as great a job as bumping it up higher did. It's important to remember to try decreasing back to 20 mg after a short while to make sure the patient isn't being chronically overmedicated.

There's also some great merit for short-term use of higher doses of Zyprexa (starting at 60 for a few days, then down to 45, then 40, then 30, then 20 with the plan to stay at 20 mg long-term). This is usually for patients who aren't sleeping, who aren't caring for themselves, or who are actively homicidal with repeated attempts to act on those urges. Not residual paranoia and grandiosity in someone who's eating, sleeping, and not getting into fights.
I agree with you on your comments about voluntary vs involuntary and coercion. Not sure why you are saying this in response to my comment and not others’ comments.
The OP doesn’t give detailed info on pts paranoid delusions. Based on limited information, I’m going to err on the side of caution. I’m not sure how you all are successfully treating manic patients without classic mood stabilizers. Manic pts almost always refuse these meds and are running around talking to themselves, paranoid, rambling, etc. Do you just discharge them like that if they deny HI?
I can respect that you have worked in forensic settings and have more experience with assessing risk of harm to others, but based on the limited info provided by OP, he is still paranoid about his family conspiring against him and getting agitated with OP because he has challenged some of the delusions. More info is certainly needed and I agree with your points about educating family. However, if I’m going to discharge someone, they should not be heavily preoccupied with the delusions, appearing agitated if I question them about them.
 
Tough part about working with unstable patients with paranoia is that they really are being coerced and the drugs do have negative side effects and may or may not help that much and the treatment team is probably not working well together.

I have a patient like this right now that I am sort of (just because the independent people involved trust my judgement) the head of the team for in an customized intensive outpatient plan. Patient does not completely believe that they have mental illness or how severe it is. They have received years of coercive treatment that has worsened their condition and we are using a voluntary approach with lots of support from people he is trusting more and more and we are making progress. Basically he trusts that we are giving him choices and guidance and that we just want to help him avoid hospitalization and develop more and more autonomy. He is not defiant but he is not a real big fan of being told what to do and has spent many years honing his passive non-compliance dealing with systems that intermittently reinforce that style. Aka, variable ratio reinforcement schedule which is the hardest to extinguish.

Shorter takeaway. Coercive systems and approaches leads to worsening of the condition and systems and people are typically coercive.
 
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I agree with you on your comments about voluntary vs involuntary and coercion. Not sure why you are saying this in response to my comment and not others’ comments.
The OP doesn’t give detailed info on pts paranoid delusions. Based on limited information, I’m going to err on the side of caution. I’m not sure how you all are successfully treating manic patients without classic mood stabilizers. Manic pts almost always refuse these meds and are running around talking to themselves, paranoid, rambling, etc. Do you just discharge them like that if they deny HI?
I can respect that you have worked in forensic settings and have more experience with assessing risk of harm to others, but based on the limited info provided by OP, he is still paranoid about his family conspiring against him and getting agitated with OP because he has challenged some of the delusions. More info is certainly needed and I agree with your points about educating family. However, if I’m going to discharge someone, they should not be heavily preoccupied with the delusions, appearing agitated if I question them about them.
Sorry for only quoting your post in the last response. I find the multi-quote tedious so since I was initially going to respond to you before responding to others I only included your post there.

I'm wondering why an acute inpatient doctor would intentionally agitate a patient by challenging the delusion? Where did they train that teaches to escalate like that? I only gently confront delusions with long-standing patients who have been engaged in treatment. Otherwise, by definition with a delusion, the person would disagree with and not be amenable to any challenges. Patients who quickly accept challenging statements, in my opinion, have overvalued ideas and not delusions - delusions are fixed and would take much longer than a single acute hospitalization to address.

In terms of mania, Zyprexa has been, in my experience, a just fine mood stabilizer. I don't generally start polypharmacy, though I know plenty of psychiatrists train in institutions that say polypharmacy is the most appropriate first step for mania. If someone wants to refuse Depakote (or any specific psychotropic) that's okay with me - it has toxic adverse effects and coercing someone to take something toxic when there are other options (including a tincture of time with their FDA-maxed out Zyprexa). The first thing that will be asked in any involuntary proceeding here is "are they willing to take even one dose of any psychotropic within the past week?" Even if the patient has refused every dose if they tell the panel that they might consider one dose then the process stops immediately and they are given another week to accept even one dose. It gets really frustrating when the patient really would benefit from polypharmacy or clozapine but they voluntarily accepted at least one dose of something else in the past week.

According to the OP, the patient stabilized within a week. They seem to be attributing this to a combination of higher Zyprexa and the addition of Tegretol. I see no evidence from this post that it was these two changes and not the cumulative exposure to the Zyprexa that led to further symptomatic improvement. Yes, there is a great deal of effect within the first two weeks of Zyprexa, but there's also a great deal of effect in the next several weeks as well.

I know plenty of colleagues who emphatically believe the dose changes the day that symptoms improve were responsible. I personally think that the effects (other than sedation) are unlikely to be that quick from changes. My patients seem to do just as well as theirs in the short term. I deal with fewer severe AE in the long term (as far as I can tell, which I admit is biased).

Where I practice voluntariness is in no way related to the involuntary process, and the same is true for capacity. Where I practice you are explicitly forbidden from using lack of capacity to be admitted as justification for involuntary admission. You are only allowed to use risk of harm to self or others due to the presence of a mental illness. This doesn't stop the exclusively voluntary hospitals from dumping medicaid and other low-paying insurance patients on us with sub-par involuntary paperwork claiming "too psychotic to consent to admission." It just means that we are required to not admit them and send them to the street while calling the crisis response team to intercept the patient on the street to perform an assessment and write valid involuntary hold paperwork.

Where I work it also doesn't matter if someone is voluntary or involuntary - voluntary patients are still on a 72 hour "safe discharge" hold where they request to be discharged and we have 72 hours to coordinate a safe discharge. If they are on an involuntary hold and the judge or magistrate says it is inadequate then they are immediately discharged and we aren't allowed to hold them for even one hour to ensure safe discharge. However, involuntary hearings are 5 days after the day of the initial hold starting. So there isn't much of a difference in the minimum LOS for someone either way.

In terms of when I discharge people - it's when there's been substantial mitigation in the risk to self or others or when further treatment for the next involuntary interval ( it goes 1 week, 1 month, 1 year here) would be unlikely to further mitigate this risk. Someone brought in for a fight in public is safe when they're not longer fighting people. Someone brought in for a homicidal threat is safe when they're no longer demonstrating homicidal threats. Around here people use idiosyncratic intervals - some say for at least 1 day, some say 2 days, some say 3 days of no threats. Others insist on longer but insurances don't cover those stays. Most (95%+) involuntary patients are gone before the time of their court hearing, regardless of who is treating them.

This is all a large part of why I will likely never be practicing in the inpatient setting again in the near future.
 
Tough part about working with unstable patients with paranoia is that they really are being coerced and the drugs do have negative side effects and may or may not help that much and the treatment team is probably not working well together.

I have a patient like this right now that I am sort of (just because the independent people involved trust my judgement) the head of the team for in an customized intensive outpatient plan. Patient does not completely believe that they have mental illness or how severe it is. They have received years of coercive treatment that has worsened their condition and we are using a voluntary approach with lots of support from people he is trusting more and more and we are making progress. Basically he trusts that we are giving him choices and guidance and that we just want to help him avoid hospitalization and develop more and more autonomy. He is not defiant but he is not a real big fan of being told what to do and has spent many years honing his passive non-compliance dealing with systems that intermittently reinforce that style. Aka, variable ratio reinforcement schedule which is the hardest to extinguish.

Shorter takeaway. Coercive systems and approaches leads to worsening of the condition and systems and people are typically coercive.
I appreciate your perspective. I am interested to know how the coercive treatment has worsened their condition but I understand that you may not be able to go into details because of HIPAA. I'm also not sure what behavior and the reinforcement you are referring to when you mention variable ratio reinforcement.
 
Sorry for only quoting your post in the last response. I find the multi-quote tedious so since I was initially going to respond to you before responding to others I only included your post there.
That's OK.

I'm well aware of what a delusion is. When OP said "...not agitated (only with me as he knows I don't think he knows all these famous people)" I didn't imagine that OP told the patient "You don't know those famous people." I pictured something more subtle. For example, I had a manic patient a few weeks ago that could purportedly tell by my facial expressions (even though I had a KN95 on) that I didn't believe his delusions about being Christ. He asked me angrily, "You don't believe me do you? DO YOU?" and I said something like, "Well, I don't know" and this didn't satisfy him, he appeared so angry with me and I had to back out of the room and he got mad at me for backing out of the room, etc.

When you say that Zyprexa alone has been a just fine mood stabilizer, I'm not going to argue against your experiences. When there are multiple meds it's difficult to know which med is responsible for improvement or whether it's both. I can't honestly say that I've seen a manic patient taking just Zyprexa 20mg daily, reliably for 2 weeks. So I believe it could work. I typically start lithium or depakote, plus antipsychotic (if psychotic), plus benzo at night to try to get the patient better ASAP. I get that Depakote can be toxic, but mania is also "toxic" in it's own way and Depakote gets people out of mania very quickly. It doesn't mean they have to take it forever. We didn't talk about lithium much, but I've seen a few cases where lithium is the only med that keeps a patient out of mania.

You said, "The first thing that will be asked in any involuntary proceeding here is "are they willing to take even one dose of any psychotropic within the past week?" Even if the patient has refused every dose if they tell the panel that they might consider one dose then the process stops immediately and they are given another week to accept even one dose. It gets really frustrating when the patient really would benefit from polypharmacy or clozapine but they voluntarily accepted at least one dose of something else in the past week."
This is completely different to how things are done in my state, and the way this is done in your state is, in my opinion, doing a grave disservice to patients.

You said, "I know plenty of colleagues who emphatically believe the dose changes the day that symptoms improve were responsible. I personally think that the effects (other than sedation) are unlikely to be that quick from changes."
I agree with you.

You said, "Where I practice voluntariness is in no way related to the involuntary process, and the same is true for capacity. Where I practice you are explicitly forbidden from using lack of capacity to be admitted as justification for involuntary admission. You are only allowed to use risk of harm to self or others due to the presence of a mental illness. This doesn't stop the exclusively voluntary hospitals from dumping medicaid and other low-paying insurance patients on us with sub-par involuntary paperwork claiming "too psychotic to consent to admission." It just means that we are required to not admit them and send them to the street while calling the crisis response team to intercept the patient on the street to perform an assessment and write valid involuntary hold paperwork.....In terms of when I discharge people - it's when there's been substantial mitigation in the risk to self or others or when further treatment for the next involuntary interval ( it goes 1 week, 1 month, 1 year here) would be unlikely to further mitigate this risk. Someone brought in for a fight in public is safe when they're not longer fighting people. Someone brought in for a homicidal threat is safe when they're no longer demonstrating homicidal threats. Around here people use idiosyncratic intervals - some say for at least 1 day, some say 2 days, some say 3 days of no threats. Others insist on longer but insurances don't cover those stays. Most (95%+) involuntary patients are gone before the time of their court hearing, regardless of who is treating them."
I'm so confused by this...I'm not even sure what to say.

I don't believe a patient has to be physically violent or stating they are homicidal or suicidal in order to require further hospitalization. Preoccupation with paranoid delusions, highly disorganized speech and/or highly disorganized behavior is enough for me. They need to be able to function or have people that can safely take of them. I realize that people discharge homeless severely psychotic people to the street or severely paranoid patients back to the people they are paranoid about, but I'm not about that. I'll give you an example of a patient I had recently. Pt was living with their parent and they are convinced their parent has been poisoning them to try to kill them. Patient denies HI towards the parent. I'm still not going to send them back to their parent. I don't expect the delusion to go away during the hospitalization, the delusion has been present for months (they were hospitalized last year with same delusion, same fear for their life). I can talk to the parent all day about not provoking their delusion by asking them about it, I don't think it's a safe situation.
 
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"Voluntary" is a locally defined term. This is going to vary state to state, but in my state it would be perfectly valid to inform the patient that if they choose not to be admitted voluntarily they will be committed involuntarily -- voluntary status it is a lesser restriction of liberty with fewer negative consequences. There are some caveats, e.g. you want to be sure that you actually could admit them involuntarily.

Incidentally, can you involuntarily commit patients with capacity to make decision regarding hospitalization in your state? In my state such patients categorically cannot be admitted involuntarily.


If you would otherwise give medication over objection (e.g. patient is emergently dangerous), you generally should be coercing patient to take PO if the alternative is restraint+IM - it is less traumatic and less violating of their autonomy.
As for involuntary status in my region, see my post above this one. The short answer is that capacity is irrelevant to the process where I am. You cannot involuntarily commit someone just because they don't have capacity to consent to admission and having capacity to be admitted does not preclude being involuntary.

Telling someone acutely agitated who you would plan on putting into restraints is entirely different from telling someone who is already accepting medications that you will give them additional IMs of the medication they are already accepting if they don't accept another one.

Telling someone that their standing medication will be a standing injection if they refuse a different oral medication is coercive. Where I am if a patient is approved for involuntary medication only then can you tell them they will get an IM if they refuse a PO. Prior to that is definitely not kosher.
 
Telling someone that their standing medication will be a standing injection if they refuse a different oral medication is coercive. Where I am if a patient is approved for involuntary medication only then can you tell them they will get an IM if they refuse a PO. Prior to that is definitely not kosher.

Thought I made this clear in my previous posts but I guess I didn’t. I wouldn’t give IM backup for refusal of PO until AFTER going to court and the judge approved involuntary medication. After reflecting, I do think that giving the same exact med a patient agrees to take PO as IM backup for refusal of another med does seem worse than if it was a different med
 
You said, "The first thing that will be asked in any involuntary proceeding here is "are they willing to take even one dose of any psychotropic within the past week?" Even if the patient has refused every dose if they tell the panel that they might consider one dose then the process stops immediately and they are given another week to accept even one dose. It gets really frustrating when the patient really would benefit from polypharmacy or clozapine but they voluntarily accepted at least one dose of something else in the past week."
This is completely different to how things are done in my state, and the way this is done in your state is, in my opinion, doing a grave disservice to patients.
This is one of the most ridiculous things I think I've heard, and agree that this is a grave disservice to patients. If this were an actual law in my state I'd be talking to other docs about how to get this changed, it actually blows my mind that a patient just saying they'll take a med would end an involuntary hearing.
 
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This is one of the most ridiculous things I think I've heard, and agree that this is a grave disservice to patients. If this were an actual law in my state I'd be talking to other docs about how to get this changed, it actually blows my mind that a patient just saying they'll take a med would end an involuntary hearing.
Yeah it's ridiculous. There are other ridiculous things like if the patient says there are religious reasons for not taking the medication then it is accepted at face value. No attempts to determine if that belief is actually a component of that religion.

Also, for DesiredMember - I'm aware that you made it clear. You're also aware that I was responding to someone else and what other people have said in this thread, I assume. I was not intending to be a jerk about the comment regarding overvalued idea, I just see psychiatrists making the decision that something is a delusion far too early in treatment not infrequently.

Someone saying that your subtle facial expression through an N95 indicates something in the way you described is not what I'm talking about, as that's clearly floridly psychotic and I also wouldn't discharge that day if someone were acting in that way.

I'm definitely on board with starting a benzodiazepine or other nighttime sedative to assist with sleep regulation on admission, as long as the plan is clear for outpatient teams regarding that treatment. I'm also on board with starting lithium or Depakote with Zyprexa, but with the understanding that for most patients one of those drugs (most likely the Zyprexa) will be stopped within a month and maintenance will continue with the lithium (provided they have bipolar disorder and the Zyprexa was added primarily for sedation and acute control). Obviously if there is any hint of a decompensation we go straight back to the polypharmacy.
 
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