- Joined
- Mar 13, 2014
- Messages
- 1,012
- Reaction score
- 813
Theoretically, it's possible to have comorbid bipolar I / II or MDD and schizophrenia without being classified as schizoaffective d/o so long as the mood symptoms aren't present during the majority of psychotic episodes, correct? I feel like this is a straightforward concept but I've heard conflicting things