This might be a stupid question but I had two attendings that did two different things so I've been confused and I'd like to see what others think. In particular since I have a patient to treat soon...
The general paradigm I initially learned in defining "intermediate" risk nodal levels would be any involved level as well as the next echelon of nodal drainage. Any levels after that could be considered "low" risk.
For example:
p16 positive, SCC of the right base of tongue which crosses the midline.
One single node in right level II measuring 5.5cm.
No other nodes. The left neck is node negative.
So obviously you would include the primary aspects of the oropharynx and right level II to intermediate doses as they are involved with tumor.
I would typically also consider right level III as intermediate risk because it is next echelon.
But the tumor crosses the midline, and base of tongue is considered a midline structure.... so shouldn't we also treat left level II as intermediate risk? I had one attending I trained with at first that would... but a second attending that would treat the node negative neck to low risk doses (if HPV+).
So how would you risk classify left level II in this case?
The general paradigm I initially learned in defining "intermediate" risk nodal levels would be any involved level as well as the next echelon of nodal drainage. Any levels after that could be considered "low" risk.
For example:
p16 positive, SCC of the right base of tongue which crosses the midline.
One single node in right level II measuring 5.5cm.
No other nodes. The left neck is node negative.
So obviously you would include the primary aspects of the oropharynx and right level II to intermediate doses as they are involved with tumor.
I would typically also consider right level III as intermediate risk because it is next echelon.
But the tumor crosses the midline, and base of tongue is considered a midline structure.... so shouldn't we also treat left level II as intermediate risk? I had one attending I trained with at first that would... but a second attending that would treat the node negative neck to low risk doses (if HPV+).
So how would you risk classify left level II in this case?