MA20 did report on the location of recurrences.
"The majority of regional treatment failures included the axillary nodes (in 63% of patients) or the supraclavicular nodes (in 27%)." There were 23 regional recurrences without RNI and 5 with RNI out 916 patients each. That means that there is a gain of 2% less regional recurrences based on MA20.
Please bear in mind that patients in the MA20 RNI-arm did not receive a "full" axillary irradiation. They merely had the internal mammary, the paraclavicular nodes and the level III axilla nodes irradiated. Now, in the old days prior to Z0011, surgeons seldom dissected level III axillary nodes in cN0 patients that came up as pN1 during surgery in frozen section of the SLN. Common practice, in my institution at least, was for them to dissect level I & II. I can only recall extensive level III dissections in patients with bulky cN2 disease and bad biology where the surgeons were and still are dissecting as many nodes as possible.
So let's see...
Based on MA20 lots of us have argued and continue to argue to conduct RNI in patients with positive nodes after ALND. Our motivation are the 2% gain in less regional recurrences through RNI (which according to our observations seem to have altered the course of the disease as well with less metastasis, although the mechanism is not completely clear).
At the same time based on Z0011 people say that cN0/pN1-patients do not need ALND or RNI.
Do you see the irony?
Some of us are calling for RNI based on MA20, treating SCV and MI on pN1 patients who have had ALND. Yet at the very same time some of us seem to be perfectly comfortable in not treating the axilla in the very same patients with pN1 and just a sentinel node dissection without ALND.
Now, who of these patients do you think has a higher risk for harboring microscopic disease in any non-dissected nodes?
The 65 year old patient with a pT2 pN1 (1/1) cM0 G2 IDC post BCS with SLN or the 65 year old patient with a pT2 pN1 (1/12) cM0 G2 IDC post BCS with ALND?
Who would you rather treat with any form of RNI and what would your targets be?
The first patient is a typical patient post surgery applying Z0011-practice. The second patient is a typical patient that would have been enrolled in MA20.
Not to muddy the waters, but MA20 and EORTC 22922/10925 were co-reported in 2015; one on p.307 of the NEJM and the other p.317. (The reason I don't mention MA20 is because yes it confuses me, esp in light of its sister EORTC study. I tend to mangle what the study "means.") First, the elephant in the room: no survival advantages have ever been phIII reported specifically for RNI in breast cancer. (Whereas its much easier to "prove" some local
therapy XRT of some sort improves survival in breast cancer.) Second, the European study was ostensibly a non-axillary-RT study, just sclav and IMN RNI only. And what did not irradiating the axilla do in the EORTC study?
It decreased axillary recurrence rates by ~33%. Explain that without playing verbal/logical Twister; I can't. Fourth, re: "Please bear in mind that patients in the MA20 RNI-arm did not receive a full axillary irradiation... [t]hey merely had the internal mammary, the paraclavicular nodes and the level III axilla nodes irradiated," here's what MA20 said:
How many got level 3-only axillary RT in MA20? It seems 2/3 did, but 1/3 got the full axillary Monty I believe. Fifth, re: "There were 23 regional recurrences without RNI and 5 with RNI out 916 patients each. That means that there is a gain of 2% less regional recurrences based on MA20" and "The majority of regional treatment failures included the axillary nodes (in 63% of patients)"... at 10 years there was a
7.2% vs 4.5% of isolated locoregional recurrence in favor of RNI in MA20 (p=0.018), so in fact that 2% less may be ~2-3% less. But would this still be p<0.05 significant if we looked at isolated axillary recurrence only? I don't know; I have doubts.
Finally, no, I see no irony in Z0011 vs MA20. But like Forrest Gump said, I am not a smart man! Z0011 is a purely axillary concern, the other a much more hazy and nebulous axillary concern. And, as mentioned, toss in EORTC 22922 and that almost tosses any axillary insights out the window. Both MA20 and the EORTC show RNI lowers regional recurrences (again, the axillary issue by itself is hazy) in the neighborhood of needing to provide RNI to around 50 women to prevent one regional recurrence; and all that sans survival benefits. If you want to irradiate axillae, you better irradiate sclavs and IMNs at the same time or you'll lose therapeutic firepower (if you truly believe it exists). I still say, you can concentrate on the axilla if you want. I saw a woman in clinic yesterday who had ALND; her unsolicited complaint: "They ruined my arm." We can also concentrate on how much oil the terrorists use in their hummus.
The 65 year old patient with a pT2 pN1 (1/1) cM0 G2 IDC post BCS with SLN or the 65 year old patient with a pT2 pN1 (1/12) cM0 G2 IDC post BCS with ALND?
Who would you rather treat with any form of RNI and what would your targets be?
In my world, the second patient wouldn't exist in a malpractice-ish ("Your honor, this woman can no longer drive the bus OR iron clothes!" wink wink) sort of way, and definitely no RNI for the first patient. Aaaand... these are the same patients, it's just that second one
went into a deep gravity well, recently emerging, in 1999 where she aged almost imperceptibly while time in our inertial frame marched onward.