- Joined
- Feb 22, 2014
- Messages
- 530
- Reaction score
- 343
What are your guys thoughts?
Last week I had a 22yo VERY NON-COMPLIANT patient with history of FVL present in labor. Patient was "seen" by MFM and heme-onc, sporadically. Her history of FVL included MULTIPLE blood clots including thrombotic events even during periods of compliance with anticoagulation. Per her notes in between clotting episodes she had been put on numerous meds including Lovenox and Xarelto. Back in 2015 she had in intracardiac thrombus which hwas usrgically removed after an IVC filter had been placed pre-op and subsequently removed later.
So now OB calls for epidural at 3am with the patient in labor at 7cm. Patient had two prior pregnancies which she delivered SVD without the use of epidural. but of course this one she was in too much pain and wanted one. Labs looked ok except for a slightly low PTT (24? don't remember exact number). Heranti-coag course this time was that she was bridged from Lovenox to 10,000units heprin TID at 36weeks. However, she stopped taking the heparing about a day before coming in labor. OB planning to restart anti-coagulation within 6 hours after delivery. And of course OB resident also mentions that patient desires BTL afterwards...
What would you guys do?
And before we get into too much debate, I told OB resident to give her fentanyl PCA. And of course 20 minutes later resident calls me back that patient delivered (probably before PCA was even started). Then she asked about the BTL and what our plan for that would be. Purely elective BTL at 4am... Would you guys spinal? GA? Tell them to come up with an anti-coag plan and get back to you?
Last week I had a 22yo VERY NON-COMPLIANT patient with history of FVL present in labor. Patient was "seen" by MFM and heme-onc, sporadically. Her history of FVL included MULTIPLE blood clots including thrombotic events even during periods of compliance with anticoagulation. Per her notes in between clotting episodes she had been put on numerous meds including Lovenox and Xarelto. Back in 2015 she had in intracardiac thrombus which hwas usrgically removed after an IVC filter had been placed pre-op and subsequently removed later.
So now OB calls for epidural at 3am with the patient in labor at 7cm. Patient had two prior pregnancies which she delivered SVD without the use of epidural. but of course this one she was in too much pain and wanted one. Labs looked ok except for a slightly low PTT (24? don't remember exact number). Heranti-coag course this time was that she was bridged from Lovenox to 10,000units heprin TID at 36weeks. However, she stopped taking the heparing about a day before coming in labor. OB planning to restart anti-coagulation within 6 hours after delivery. And of course OB resident also mentions that patient desires BTL afterwards...
What would you guys do?
And before we get into too much debate, I told OB resident to give her fentanyl PCA. And of course 20 minutes later resident calls me back that patient delivered (probably before PCA was even started). Then she asked about the BTL and what our plan for that would be. Purely elective BTL at 4am... Would you guys spinal? GA? Tell them to come up with an anti-coag plan and get back to you?