may 2006 EE Preperation

sonibun · Jan 9, 2006

please solve the following question

1. which of the following are clinical sign of gingivitis
a)losss of stippling
b)gingival hyperplasia
c)bleeding on probing
d) increased probing depth

A)1,2,3
B)1 and 2
C)2 and 4
D)4 only
E) all the above

drblack · Apr 6, 2006

sonibun said:
What is the mechanism of bonding of ceramic-to-metal for dental restorations?
a. Physical bonding only
b. Covalent bonding across the interface
c.Formation of an intermediate oxide layer
d. Reaction of the porcelain with the metal

Ans C. formation of an intermediate oxide layer

and other question by increasing the w/p ratio and Humidity (not sure ???)

drblack · Apr 6, 2006

Pls Answer and tell the source also if possible

The greatest amount of occlusal forces is seen in

A) Mastication
B) Swallowing
C) Parafunctional Habits
D) Centric Relation

notre dame · Apr 6, 2006

[hello i am like you exctly so plz if you found any source for the questions plz let me know
my email. is [email protected]

I'm taking the EE this may....been studying dental decks and my original books from dental school. Is this enough? How different are the EE from NDBE? Are there any Canadian study materials to prepare for EE??? HELP!!! I'm so nervous!!!! :scared:

[/QUOTE]

sonibun · Apr 7, 2006

drblack said:
Pls Answer and tell the source also if possible

The greatest amount of occlusal forces is seen in

A) Mastication
B) Swallowing
C) Parafunctional Habits
D) Centric Relation

ans c not sure correct me if wrong

sonibun · Apr 7, 2006

1.What are the recommended numbers of implants for complete edentulous patients?

A. Maxillary 1 and mandibular 1
B. Maxillary 3 and mandibular 2
c. Maxillary 6 and mandibular 4
D. Maxillary 8 and mandibular 6
E. Maxillary 4 and mandibular 6
ans c-asked an oral surgeon

elle2006 · Apr 7, 2006

sonibun What is the mechanism of bonding of ceramic-to-metal for dental restorations?
a. Physical bonding only
b. Covalent bonding across the interface
c.Formation of an intermediate oxide layer
d. Reaction of the porcelain with the metal

my answer: C
sonibun The following factors will increase the setting time of gypsum products:

Increasing the water temperature.
Rapid spatulation
Increasing the water/ powder ratio
Humidity (as a result of opened storage container)
Increasing the water/powder ratio and increased humidity

my answer: incresing the water/ powder ratio
sonibun

elle2006 said:
The Gow-Gates Mandibular Block
what is target area lateral to medial pterygoid or lateral,medial to TMJ or lateral

my answer: lateral to medial pterygoid

sonibun · Apr 8, 2006

2. why is it advisable to dispense the liquid component of cement of cement immediately before mixing?
a. to avoid absorption of moisture from the air
b. to avoid spreading over a large area of the slab
c. to allow tempering of the powder by the mixing slab
d. to reduce the temperature influence of the mixing slab
e. to prevent evaporation of the volatile components.

9 occlusal sealants succeed by altering which of the following
a. the substrate
b. the bacterial types
c. the bacterial number
d. the bacterial virulence
e. the host's susceptibility

10 probing depth can vary based on the degree of inflammation frequently, the reduction in probing depth obtained after initial therapy reflects this changes, rather than a true gain in clinical attachment.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second statement is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true

11 a major advantage to patient treatment with osseointegrated dental implants is a change in the pattern of edentulous ridge resorption, which of the following is believed to be the reason for a more physiologic loading of the bone a. delayed loading b. endosteal loading c. sequential loading d. progressive loading e. mucoperiosteal loading

drblack · Apr 8, 2006

2. why is it advisable to dispense the liquid component of cement of cement immediately before mixing?
a. to avoid absorption of moisture from the air
b. to avoid spreading over a large area of the slab
c. to allow tempering of the powder by the mixing slab
d. to reduce the temperature influence of the mixing slab
e. to prevent evaporation of the volatile components.

Ans. E
9 occlusal sealants succeed by altering which of the following
a. the substrate
b. the bacterial types
c. the bacterial number
d. the bacterial virulence
e. the host's susceptibility

Ans E
10 probing depth can vary based on the degree of inflammation frequently, the reduction in probing depth obtained after initial therapy reflects this changes, rather than a true gain in clinical attachment.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second statement is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true

Ans A
11 a major advantage to patient treatment with osseointegrated dental implants is a change in the pattern of edentulous ridge resorption, which of the following is believed to be the reason for a more physiologic loading of the bone a. delayed loading b. endosteal loading c. sequential loading d. progressive loading e. mucoperiosteal loading

??????????

Please correct me if I am wrong

sonibun said:
2. why is it advisable to dispense the liquid component of cement of cement immediately before mixing?
a. to avoid absorption of moisture from the air
b. to avoid spreading over a large area of the slab
c. to allow tempering of the powder by the mixing slab
d. to reduce the temperature influence of the mixing slab
e. to prevent evaporation of the volatile components.

9 occlusal sealants succeed by altering which of the following
a. the substrate
b. the bacterial types
c. the bacterial number
d. the bacterial virulence
e. the host's susceptibility

10 probing depth can vary based on the degree of inflammation frequently, the reduction in probing depth obtained after initial therapy reflects this changes, rather than a true gain in clinical attachment.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second statement is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true

11 a major advantage to patient treatment with osseointegrated dental implants is a change in the pattern of edentulous ridge resorption, which of the following is believed to be the reason for a more physiologic loading of the bone a. delayed loading b. endosteal loading c. sequential loading d. progressive loading e. mucoperiosteal loading

jasjitminhas · Apr 9, 2006

sonibun said:
please solve the following question

1. which of the following are clinical sign of gingivitis
a)losss of stippling
b)gingival hyperplasia
c)bleeding on probing
d) increased probing depth

A)1,2,3
B)1 and 2
C)2 and 4
D)4 only
E) all the above

the answer is e...a,b,c are classical for gingivitis...and d is because of loss of attachment

elle2006 · Apr 10, 2006

Originally Posted by sonibun
2. why is it advisable to dispense the liquid component of cement of cement immediately before mixing?
a. to avoid absorption of moisture from the air
b. to avoid spreading over a large area of the slab
c. to allow tempering of the powder by the mixing slab
d. to reduce the temperature influence of the mixing slab
e. to prevent evaporation of the volatile components.

Ans. A
9 occlusal sealants succeed by altering which of the following
a. the substrate
b. the bacterial types
c. the bacterial number
d. the bacterial virulence
e. the host's susceptibility

Ans. A
10 probing depth can vary based on the degree of inflammation frequently, the reduction in probing depth obtained after initial therapy reflects this changes, rather than a true gain in clinical attachment.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second statement is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true

ans. A
11 a major advantage to patient treatment with osseointegrated dental implants is a change in the pattern of edentulous ridge resorption, which of the following is believed to be the reason for a more physiologic loading of the bone a. delayed loading b. endosteal loading c. sequential loading d. progressive loading e. mucoperiosteal loading

ans. B

[/QUOTE]

drkgp · Apr 10, 2006

sonibun said:
1.What are the recommended numbers of implants for complete edentulous patients?

A. Maxillary 1 and mandibular 1
B. Maxillary 3 and mandibular 2
c. Maxillary 6 and mandibular 4
D. Maxillary 8 and mandibular 6
E. Maxillary 4 and mandibular 6
ans c-asked an oral surgeon

hi soni,
the ans is c

elle2006 · Apr 10, 2006

9 occlusal sealants succeed by altering which of the following
a. the substrate
b. the bacterial types
c. the bacterial number
d. the bacterial virulence
e. the host's susceptibility

For this one I corect my answer;the good ans. is E ( the host is a susceptible tooth and the substrate is the dental plaque).

elle2006 · Apr 10, 2006

1.When Zn phosphate cem. is used as a luting agent, the initial acidity may elicit a traumatic pulpal response if:
a. only a thin layer of dentin is left
b. very thin mix of cement is used
c. the tooth has already had traumatic injury
d. no cavity varnish is used

A. a,c and d
B. a or d only
C. b only
D. any of the above

2. Characteristucs of composite resin that present problems in plascement of restaurations include:
a.short working time
b.high viscosity and tendency to entrap air
c.long hardening time
d.high polymerization shrinkage

A. a only
B. a and b only
C. a,b and d
D. b and c only
E. b,c and d

sonibun · Apr 11, 2006

elle2006 said:
1.When Zn phosphate cem. is used as a luting agent, the initial acidity may elicit a traumatic pulpal response if:
a. only a thin layer of dentin is left
b. very thin mix of cement is used
c. the tooth has already had traumatic injury
d. no cavity varnish is used

A. a,c and d
B. a or d only
C. b only
D. any of the above
D
2. Characteristucs of composite resin that present problems in plascement of restaurations include:
a.short working time
b.high viscosity and tendency to entrap air
c.long hardening time
d.high polymerization shrinkage

A. a only
B. a and b only
C. a,b and d
D. b and c only
E. b,c and d

D
correct me plz

sonibun · Apr 11, 2006

my opions are
2. Total anterior vertical face height is determined cephalometrically from menton to:
A. The anterior nasal spine.
B. Sella.
C. Bregma.
D. Nasion.
E. Pogonion.
C

3. Patients who have natural dentitions generate the GREATEST amount of occlusal force duing:
A. Swallowing
B. Mastication.
C. Centric relation.
D. Parafunctional movements.
D

4. Which of the following represents an effective treatment for mottled enamel (chalky white color mixed with brown spots)?
A. Microabrasion with HCI.pumice.
B. Vital tooth bleaching at home.
C. Walking bleach after root canal treatment.
D. In-office bleaching with 35% hydrogen peroxide.
A
5. Which of the following BEST describes the development of alopecia following therapeutic radiation to the head and neck?
A. Temporary and of short duration.
B. A sign of recurrence of tumor
C. Sign of osteoradionecrosis
D. Unrelated phenomenon
E. Anticipated sequele
E

7. At what age are all primary teeth normally in occiusion?
A. 1 ½ to 2 years
B. 2 ½ to 3 years
C. 3 ½ to 4 years
D. Greater then 4 years
B

8. A freshly condensed class II amaigam restoration has a deficient margin at the proximogingival cavosurface angle this might have been caused by which of the following?
A. Over tightening the matrix band
B. Neglecting to wedge the matrix band
C. Neglecting to contour the matrix band
D. Using too large an initial increment of amalgam
B

9. Why is it advisable to dispense the liquid component of cement immediately before mixing?
A. To avoid absorption of moisture from the air.
B. To avoid spreading over a large area of the slab.
C. To allow tempering of the powder by the mixing slab
D. To reduce the temperature influence of the mixing slab
E. To prevent evaporation of the volatile components.
E

10. Each of the following is recommended in a cavity preparation for composite resign EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A. Smooth cavity walls
B. Smooth regular cavosurface margins
C. Sharp, point angle retentive features
D. No unsupported enamel except in areas of esthetic concern.
D

11. A 6-year old girl, who has acute lymphocytic leukemia, has a deep carious lesion in a primary mandibular second molar. Her radiographs reveal that this tooth has a furcation involvement. After administering antibiotic prophylaxis, the dentist should do which of the following?
A. Extract the tooth
B. Perform a pulpotomy
C. Open the tooth for drainage
D. Perform a calcium hydroxide pulp cap
A

12. A patient who has a high caries index, short clinical crowns, and minimal horizontal overlap requires restoration of a maxillary central incisor. The restoration of choice is a:
A. pin-ledge restoration
B. metal-ceramic crown
C. three quarter crown
D. porcelain jacket crown
B

14. Placement of maxillary anterior teeth in complete dentures too far superiorly and anteriorly might result in difficulty in pronouncing which of the following sounds?
A. F and Y
B. D and t
C. S and th
D. J and ch

B
15. Which of the following substances derived from dental plaque bacteria is (are) capable of inducing bone resorption in a tissue culture?
A. Dextran
B. Endotoxin
C. C3b and C5a
D. Interleukin-1
D

16. Which of the following represents the MOST likely cause of plastic denture teeth being dislodged from the acrylic resin of the denture base?
A. Excessive occlusal forces were applied
B. The occlusal surfaces were adjusted excessively
C. Retentive undercuts were not placed in the teeth
D. The mold was contaminated with wax before processing
C????????

17. A patient presents with a restricted floor of the mouth, only 6 mandibular anterior teeth, and diastema between several teeth. Which of the following major connectors is appropriate for this patient?
A. A lingual bar
B. A lingual plate
C. A lingual bar with a kennedy bar
D. A lingual plate with interruptions (spaces) in the plate at the
?????????????
diastemas

18. According to the ADA publication entitled principles of ethics and code of professional conduct, a dentist can announce specialization in which of the following?
A. Implantology
B. Hospital dentistry
C. Aesthetic dentistry
D. Dental public health
E. Genatric dentistry
C??????????

19. Maxillary first premolars with mesiodistal furcation involvements are often managed successfully by surgery?
Therefore they have a good prognosis and can be included as key abutments in a fixed prosthesis
A. Both statements are TURE
B. Both statements are FALSE
C. The first statement is TRUE, second is FALSE
D. The first statement is FALSE, second is TRUE
B??????

20. A tissue-conditioning material is MOST frequently used to treat which of the following conditions?
A. Epulis fissuratum
B. Papillary hyperplasia of the mucosa
C. Tissue symptoms related to candidaalbicans
D. Traumatized mucosa caused by ill-fitting dentures
E. Sharp, residual mandibular ridges occurring in molar areas
D

21. The ability of a patient to make choices among treatment options represents the concept of
A. Autonomy
B. Competence
C. Beneficence
D. Paternalism
A

22. To enhance a patients comfort level in a dental setting, which of the following represents the MOST important action for a dentist?
A. Inform the patient of what to expect during the appointment
B. Have an auxiliary staff member present in the operatory
C. Assert control using a directive interviewing style
D. Provide an immediate evaluation of the patients oral health

E. Maintain eye contact to increase the level of intimacy
E

23. Which of the following physical signs indicates severe CNS oxygen deprivation?
A. Dilated pupils with increased light reflex
B. Pinpoint pupils with increased light reflex
C. Dilated pupils with an absence of light reflex
D. Pinpoint pupils with an absence of light reflex
C

24. Postural hypotension is a common complaint of patients who take antihypertensive agents because many of these agents interfere with the
A. Sympathetic control of vascular reflexes
B. Release of acetylcholine in the ganglia
C. Epinephrine release from the adrenal medulla
D. Parasympathetic control of vascular resistance
E. Neuromuscular transmission in skeletal muscles

25. Which of the following represents the classic sign or symptom of an anteriority displaced disc with reduction?
A. pain
B. closed lock
C. reciprocal click
D. temporal headache
E. decreased range of motion
C

26. Which of the following characteristics of autism presents a major obstacle to successful dental management of an ambulatory patient?
A. impaired communication
B. apparent insensitivity to pain
C. lack of intellectual development
D. inability to perform fine-motor activities
E. automations, such as hair twirling and body rocking
A

27. The dentist will perform a periodontal surgery on the patients palate, which of the following arteries presents the greatest hazard for complications from hemorrhage?
A. Lingual
B. Nasopalatine
C. Anterior palatine
D. Posterior palatine
??????????????

28. Which of the following represents the primary purpose of using a detergent (wetting agent) on a wax pattern before investing?
A. to smooth the pattern surface
B. to eliminate the casting porosity
C. to harden the surface of the wax
D. to lower the surface tension of the wax
E. to prevent distortion of the wax pattern
D

29. What is effect of increasing the pKa of a local anesthetic in regard to time of archiving anesthesia and its duration of action?
Time in achieving anesthesia Duration of action
A) Shortens No change
B) Lengthens Lengthens
C) Shortens Shortens
D) Lengthens Shortens
E) No Change No Change

30. Which of the following is seen MOST frequently among temporomandibular-joint dysfunction patients?
A. Depression
B. Psychosis
C. Sociapathy
D. Schizotypical behavior
E. Passive-aggressive behavior
E

31. Increasing the amount of water in the mix of an improved sypsum die-stone will MOST likely result in which of the following?
A. More expansion and more strength
B. More expansion and less strength
C. Less expansion and more strength
D. Less expansion and less strength
D

32. A mojor advantage to patient treatment with osseointegrated dental implants is a change in the pattern of edentulous ridge resorption. Which of the following is believed to be the reason for a more physiologic loading of the bone?
A. Delayed loading
B. Endosteal loading
C. Sequential loading
D. Progressive loading
E. Mucoperiosteal loading
??????????

33. A dentist prepares to treat a young child, the childs mother would like to accompany the child into the operatory, the dentist agrees. The effect of the mothers presence will
A. Increase treatment time
B. Improve the childs behavior
C. Depend on the mothers behavior
D. Have no effect on how the child behaves
E. Make the child more difficult to manage
E

34. When the dentist places epinephrine cord subgingivally on abraded tissue, it mimics which route of administration?
A. Intradermal
B. Topical
C. Intravenous
D. Intramuscular
E. Subcutaneous
?????????????

35. Which of the following represents the BEST and to diagnose an irreversible pulpits?
A. Electric plup test
B. Thermal test
C. Radiograph
D. Percussion
E. Test cavity
E

37. A heat processed indirect composite inlay has each of the following advantages over direct composites, EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A. Reduced microleakage
B. Better wear resistance
C. Greater polymer conversion
D. Increased hardness of the material
E. Less stress on tooth from polymerization shrinkage
???????????????????????

nkhalid · Apr 11, 2006

Hi,
14. Placement of maxillary anterior teeth in complete dentures too far superiorly and anteriorly might result in difficulty in pronouncing which of the following sounds?
A. F and Y
B. D and t
C. S and th
D. J and ch
I think it,s C, correct me if I,m wrong.

nkhalid · Apr 11, 2006

Hi,
8. A freshly condensed class II amaigam restoration has a deficient margin at the proximogingival cavosurface angle this might have been caused by which of the following?
A. Over tightening the matrix band
B. Neglecting to wedge the matrix band
C. Neglecting to contour the matrix band
D. Using too large an initial increment of amalgam
Cant it be by using too large initial increment of amalgam.

nkhalid · Apr 11, 2006

HI,
35. Which of the following represents the BEST and to diagnose an irreversible pulpits?
A. Electric plup test
B. Thermal test
C. Radiograph
D. Percussion
E. Test cavity
I think the ans. is thermal test as test cavity is used to see whether the pulp is vital or non-vital. A lingering pain after themal testing usually suggests irrversible pulp damage. Correct me if you,ve different opinion.

bridge · Apr 12, 2006

Hi Jasjit

Just want to clarify one thing. Your answer is absolutely right but the option (D) doesnot mean attachment loss. You can have increased probing depths even in gingivitis due to inflammation as tissues will be inflammed upwards. Increased probing depth doesnot always mean attachment loss. Also in gingivitis there is no attachment loss.

SawsanTaha · Apr 12, 2006

Hi, please help me solve these questions. I hope you answer only if you are sure of the answer.

Q1
At his first post insertion appointment, a patient wit a new removable partial denture complains of a tender abutment tooth. The most likely cause is

A. overexytended borders of the partieal.
B. inadequate polishing of the framework.
C. improper path of insertion.
D. the occlusion

Q2
The maxillary cast partial denture major connector design with the greatest potential to cause speech problems is

A. a thick narrow major connector.
B. an anterior and a posterior bar
C. a thin broad palatal strap.
D. narrow horseshoe shaped.

Q3
The mechanism of adjustment to maintain the shape and proportions of bone throughout its growth period is called

A. remodeling.
B. cortical drift.
C. area relocation.
D. translatory growth.

Q4
Which of the following muscles comprise the retromolar pad?

1. Lateral (external) pterygoid.
2. Buccinator.
3. Palatoglossus.
4. Superior constrictor.

A. 1 2 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of the above

Q5
In cephalometry, the most stable point in a growing skull is the

A. sella turcica
B. nasion.
C. Broadbent's point.
D. Bolton point.

Q6
A patient with a tumor in the right infratemporal fossa shows a significant shift of the mandible to the right when opening. Which nerve is involved ?

A. Facial nerve VII
B. Glossopharyngeal nerve IX
C. Trigeminal nerve V
D. Hypoglossal nerve XII

Q7
The finding of "acid fast" microorganisms in sputum suggest the presence of

A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Diplococcus pneumoniae
C Streptococcus pyogenes.
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Q8
Short-acting barbiturates are metabolized mainly in the

A. Liver
B. Kidneys
C. small intestine.
D. pancreas
E. spleen

Q9
The chief mechanism by which the body metabolizes short-acting bariturates is

A. Oxidation
B. reduction
C. hydroxylation and oxidation
D. sequestration in the body fats

Q10
Procaine (Novocaine) is an example of a local anaesthetic which is chemically classified as an

A. amide
B. ester
C. aldehyde
D. ethamine
E. aminide

Q11
A protectgive mechanism of teh dental pulp to external irritation or caries is the formation of

A. pulp stones.
B. secondary dentin.
C. secondary cementum.
D. Primary dentin.

Q12
Excessive formation of scar tissue beyond the wound margin is called

A. a fibroma
B. a keloid
C. a fibro-epithelial polyp.
D. epithelial hyperplasia

Q13
Warfarin (Coumadin) acts by

A. preventing formation of thromboplastin.
B. preventing fibrinogen conversion to fibrin
C. inhibiting the synthesis of prothrombin in the liver
D. incorporating ionic calcium

Q14
Which of the following is a possible causee for a low density radiograph (light film) ?

A. Cold developer
B. Over exposure
C. Imporoper safety light.
D. Excessive developing time

Q15
In radiography, minium magnification and maximum definition are achieved by

A. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and miniumum FFD (focal-film distance)
B. miniumum OFD (object-film distance) and maximum FFD (focal-film distance)
C. maximum OFD (object-film distance) and maximum FFD (focal-film distance).
D. maxiumu OFD (object-film distance) and miniumum FFD (foacal-film distance)

Q16
Epidemiology of disease is best described as the

A. data obtained from sicknes surveys
B useual low level of disease normally found within a population
C. control of disease
D. study of disease patterns in a population.

Q17
During the setting phase, a dental stone mixture will exhibit

A. Expansion
B. contraction
C. loss in compressive strength
D. gain in moisture content

Q18
Filters are placed in the path of the x-ray beam to

A. increase contrast.
B. reduce film density
C. reduce exposure time
D. reduce patient rediation dose.

Q19
Dental porcelain has

1. Low compressive strengh
2. high hardness
3. high tensile strength
4. low impact strength

A. 1 2 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of the above

Q20
A patient who uses nitroglycerin has

A. rheumatic heart disease
B. asthma
C. coronary artery disease
D. high blood pressure
E. Cardiac arrhythmia

Q21
Particulate hydroxypatite, when placed subperiostially.

1. is highly biocompatible.
2. has a low incidence of secondary infection following surgery
3. has a tendency to migrate following insertion
4. induces bone formation throughout the implanted material

A. 1 2 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of the above

Q22
Myxoedema is associated with

A. insufficient paparthyroid hormone
B. excessive parathyroid hormone
C. insufficient thryoid hormone.
D. excessive thryoid hormone.

Q23
In the early stage, a periapical abscess can be differentiated from a lateral periodontal abscess by

A. pain.
B. type of exudate
C. tenderness to percussion.
D. response of pulp to electrical stimulation
E. radiographic examination

Q24
Which of the following conditions is characterized by abnormally large pulp chambers ?

A. Amelogenesis imperecta
B. regional odontodysplasia
C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
D. Dentinal dysplasia Type 1

Q25
Osteomyelitis of the mandible may follow

1. Radiotherapy
2. dentoalveolar absecess
3. fracture
4. Vincent's angina

A. 1 2 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of the above

Q26
Which of the following is /are associated with an unerupted tooth ?

1. odontogenic adenomatoid tumor.
2. periapical cemental dysplasia
3. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor
4. cementoblastoma

A. 1 2 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of the above

Q27
Ankylosis is commonly

A. associated with a non-vital pulp
B. the result of root fracture
C. associated with a root penetrating cavity.
D. resulting in a submerged tooth , out of occlusion
E. found in permanent teeth

Q28
An ameloblastoma is most frequently found in

A. the anterior region of the maxilla
B. the mandible, near the junction of the body and the ramus.
C. the posterior region of the maxilla.
D. in the anterior region of the mandible near the midline

Q29
Which of the following has the highest rate of recurrence ?

A. Odontogenic Keratocyst
B. Nasoalveolar cyst
C. median palatal cyst
D. Incisive canal cyst

Q30
For which of the following pathological condition would a lower centeral incisor tooth be expected to respond to heat, cold and electric pulp test ?

A. apical cyst
B. Acute apical abscess
C. Periapical osteofibrosis
D. Chronic apical periodontitis

Q 31
The microscopic appearance of the cnetral giant cell granuloma of the jaws is similar to that of lesions which occur in

A. hyperpaprathyroidism
B. paget's diesease
C. cleidocranial dysplasia (dysostosis)
D. hyperpituitarism

Q32
An ameloblastoma can develop from the epithelial lining of which of the following cysts ?

A. periapical
B. dentigerous
C. residual
D. lateral periodontal

Q33
Intermittent painful swelling in the submandibular region that increase s at mealtime is indicative of

A. a ranula
B. a blockage of Wharton's duct
C. Ludwig's angina
D. a blockage of Stensen's duct.
E. an epidemic parotitis.

Q34
Upon setting a mixture of plaster of Paris and water will exhibit

A. loss in compressive strengh
B. expansion
C. gain in moisture content
D. contraction

Q35
Upon examination of an edentulous patient, it is observed that the tuberosities contact the retromolar pads at the correct occusal vertical dimenion. The treatment of choice is to

A. reduce the retromolar pads surgically to provide the necessary clearance
B. reduce the tuberosities srgically to provide the necessary clearance.
C. contruct new dentures at an increased occlusal vertical dimension to gain the necessary clearance.
D. proceed with construciton of the denture and reduce the posterior extension of the mandibular denture to eliminate interference

Q36
In the design of a removable partial denture, guiding planes are made

A. parallel to the long axis of the tooth.
B. parallel to the path of insertion
C. at a right angle to the occlusal plane
D. at a right angle to the major connector.

Q37
A fracture in an all ceramic crown may be caused by

1. inadequate ceramic thickness
2. sharp line angles in the tooth preparation
3. excessive occlusal load
4. use of an inappropriate luting material

A. 1 2 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of the above

That's all for today, thank you.

Dr. Sawsan

nkhalid · Apr 12, 2006

Q1
At his first post insertion appointment, a patient wit a new removable partial denture complains of a tender abutment tooth. The most likely cause is

A. overexytended borders of the partieal.
B. inadequate polishing of the framework.
C. improper path of insertion.
D. the occlusion
It,s D

Q2
The maxillary cast partial denture major connector design with the greatest potential to cause speech problems is

A. a thick narrow major connector.
B. an anterior and a posterior bar
C. a thin broad palatal strap.
D. narrow horseshoe shaped.
(A)

Q3
The mechanism of adjustment to maintain the shape and proportions of bone throughout its growth period is called

A. remodeling.
B. cortical drift.
C. area relocation.
D. translatory growth.
(A)
Q4
Which of the following muscles comprise the retromolar pad?

1. Lateral (external) pterygoid.
2. Buccinator.
3. Palatoglossus.
4. Superior constrictor.

A. 1 2 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of the above
(C)

Q5
In cephalometry, the most stable point in a growing skull is the

A. sella turcica
B. nasion.
C. Broadbent's point.
D. Bolton point.
(A)

Q6
A patient with a tumor in the right infratemporal fossa shows a significant shift of the mandible to the right when opening. Which nerve is involved ?

A. Facial nerve VII
B. Glossopharyngeal nerve IX
C. Trigeminal nerve V
D. Hypoglossal nerve XII
(C)

Q7
The finding of "acid fast" microorganisms in sputum suggest the presence of

A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Diplococcus pneumoniae
C Streptococcus pyogenes.
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
(A)

Q8
Short-acting barbiturates are metabolized mainly in the

A. Liver
B. Kidneys
C. small intestine.
D. pancreas
E. spleen
(A)

Q9
The chief mechanism by which the body metabolizes short-acting bariturates is

A. Oxidation
B. reduction
C. hydroxylation and oxidation
D. sequestration in the body fats
(A)

Q10
Procaine (Novocaine) is an example of a local anaesthetic which is chemically classified as an

A. amide
B. ester
C. aldehyde
D. ethamine
E. aminide
(B)

Q11
A protectgive mechanism of teh dental pulp to external irritation or caries is the formation of

A. pulp stones.
B. secondary dentin.
C. secondary cementum.
D. Primary dentin.
(B)
Q12
Excessive formation of scar tissue beyond the wound margin is called

A. a fibroma
B. a keloid
C. a fibro-epithelial polyp.
D. epithelial hyperplasia
(B)

Q13
Warfarin (Coumadin) acts by

A. preventing formation of thromboplastin.
B. preventing fibrinogen conversion to fibrin
C. inhibiting the synthesis of prothrombin in the liver
D. incorporating ionic calcium
(C)

Q14
Which of the following is a possible causee for a low density radiograph (light film) ?

A. Cold developer
B. Over exposure
C. Imporoper safety light.
D. Excessive developing time
(A)

Q15
In radiography, minium magnification and maximum definition are achieved by

A. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and miniumum FFD (focal-film distance)
B. miniumum OFD (object-film distance) and maximum FFD (focal-film distance)
C. maximum OFD (object-film distance) and maximum FFD (focal-film distance).
D. maxiumu OFD (object-film distance) and miniumum FFD (foacal-film distance)

Q16
Epidemiology of disease is best described as the

A. data obtained from sicknes surveys
B useual low level of disease normally found within a population
C. control of disease
D. study of disease patterns in a population.
(D)

Q17
During the setting phase, a dental stone mixture will exhibit

A. Expansion
B. contraction
C. loss in compressive strength
D. gain in moisture content
(A)

Q18
Filters are placed in the path of the x-ray beam to

A. increase contrast.
B. reduce film density
C. reduce exposure time
D. reduce patient rediation dose.
(D)

Q19
Dental porcelain has

1. Low compressive strengh
2. high hardness
3. high tensile strength
4. low impact strength

A. 1 2 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of the above
(C)

Q20
A patient who uses nitroglycerin has

A. rheumatic heart disease
B. asthma
C. coronary artery disease
D. high blood pressure
E. Cardiac arrhythmia

Q21
Particulate hydroxypatite, when placed subperiostially.

1. is highly biocompatible.
2. has a low incidence of secondary infection following surgery
3. has a tendency to migrate following insertion
4. induces bone formation throughout the implanted material

A. 1 2 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of the above
(B)
Q22
Myxoedema is associated with

A. insufficient paparthyroid hormone
B. excessive parathyroid hormone
C. insufficient thryoid hormone.
D. excessive thryoid hormone.
(C)

Q23
In the early stage, a periapical abscess can be differentiated from a lateral periodontal abscess by

A. pain.
B. type of exudate
C. tenderness to percussion.
D. response of pulp to electrical stimulation
E. radiographic examination
(D)

Q24
Which of the following conditions is characterized by abnormally large pulp chambers ?

A. Amelogenesis imperecta
B. regional odontodysplasia
C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
D. Dentinal dysplasia Type 1

Q25
Osteomyelitis of the mandible may follow

1. Radiotherapy
2. dentoalveolar absecess
3. fracture
4. Vincent's angina

A. 1 2 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of the above
(A) but not too sure

Q26
Which of the following is /are associated with an unerupted tooth ?

1. odontogenic adenomatoid tumor.
2. periapical cemental dysplasia
3. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor
4. cementoblastoma

A. 1 2 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of the above
(B)

Q27
Ankylosis is commonly

A. associated with a non-vital pulp
B. the result of root fracture
C. associated with a root penetrating cavity.
D. resulting in a submerged tooth , out of occlusion
E. found in permanent teeth
(D)

Q28
An ameloblastoma is most frequently found in

A. the anterior region of the maxilla
B. the mandible, near the junction of the body and the ramus.
C. the posterior region of the maxilla.
D. in the anterior region of the mandible near the midline
(B)

Q29
Which of the following has the highest rate of recurrence ?

A. Odontogenic Keratocyst
B. Nasoalveolar cyst
C. median palatal cyst
D. Incisive canal cyst
(A)
Q30
For which of the following pathological condition would a lower centeral incisor tooth be expected to respond to heat, cold and electric pulp test ?

A. apical cyst
B. Acute apical abscess
C. Periapical osteofibrosis
D. Chronic apical periodontitis
(C)

Q 31
The microscopic appearance of the cnetral giant cell granuloma of the jaws is similar to that of lesions which occur in

A. hyperpaprathyroidism
B. paget's diesease
C. cleidocranial dysplasia (dysostosis)
D. hyperpituitarism
(A)

Q32
An ameloblastoma can develop from the epithelial lining of which of the following cysts ?

A. periapical
B. dentigerous
C. residual
D. lateral periodontal
(B)

Q33
Intermittent painful swelling in the submandibular region that increase s at mealtime is indicative of

A. a ranula
B. a blockage of Wharton's duct
C. Ludwig's angina
D. a blockage of Stensen's duct.
E. an epidemic parotitis.

Q34
Upon setting a mixture of plaster of Paris and water will exhibit

A. loss in compressive strengh
B. expansion
C. gain in moisture content

D. contraction
(B)

Q35
Upon examination of an edentulous patient, it is observed that the tuberosities contact the retromolar pads at the correct occusal vertical dimenion. The treatment of choice is to

A. reduce the retromolar pads surgically to provide the necessary clearance
B. reduce the tuberosities srgically to provide the necessary clearance.
C. contruct new dentures at an increased occlusal vertical dimension to gain the necessary clearance.
D. proceed with construciton of the denture and reduce the posterior extension of the mandibular denture to eliminate interference
(A)

Q36
In the design of a removable partial denture, guiding planes are made

A. parallel to the long axis of the tooth.
B. parallel to the path of insertion
C. at a right angle to the occlusal plane
D. at a right angle to the major connector.
(B)

Q37
A fracture in an all ceramic crown may be caused by

1. inadequate ceramic thickness
2. sharp line angles in the tooth preparation
3. excessive occlusal load
4. use of an inappropriate luting material

A. 1 2 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of the above
(A)
Correct me if i,m wrong.

drblack · Apr 13, 2006

Q1
At his first post insertion appointment, a patient wit a new removable partial denture complains of a tender abutment tooth. The most likely cause is

A. overexytended borders of the partieal.
B. inadequate polishing of the framework.
C. improper path of insertion.
D. the occlusion

Q2
The maxillary cast partial denture major connector design with the greatest potential to cause speech problems is

A. a thick narrow major connector.
B. an anterior and a posterior bar
C. a thin broad palatal strap.
D. narrow horseshoe shaped.

Q3
The mechanism of adjustment to maintain the shape and proportions of bone throughout its growth period is called

A. remodeling.
B. cortical drift.
C. area relocation.
D. translatory growth.

Q4
Which of the following muscles comprise the retromolar pad?

1. Lateral (external) pterygoid.
2. Buccinator.
3. Palatoglossus.
4. Superior constrictor.

A. 1 2 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of the above

Q5
In cephalometry, the most stable point in a growing skull is the

A. sella turcica
B. nasion.
C. Broadbent's point.
D. Bolton point.

Q6
A patient with a tumor in the right infratemporal fossa shows a significant shift of the mandible to the right when opening. Which nerve is involved ?

A. Facial nerve VII
B. Glossopharyngeal nerve IX
C. Trigeminal nerve V
D. Hypoglossal nerve XII

Q7
The finding of "acid fast" microorganisms in sputum suggest the presence of

A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Diplococcus pneumoniae
C Streptococcus pyogenes.
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Q8
Short-acting barbiturates are metabolized mainly in the

A. Liver
B. Kidneys
C. small intestine.
D. pancreas
E. spleen

Q9
The chief mechanism by which the body metabolizes short-acting bariturates is

A. Oxidation
B. reduction
C. hydroxylation and oxidation
D. sequestration in the body fats

Q10
Procaine (Novocaine) is an example of a local anaesthetic which is chemically classified as an

A. amide
B. esterC. aldehyde
D. ethamine
E. aminide

Q11
A protectgive mechanism of teh dental pulp to external irritation or caries is the formation of

A. pulp stones.
B. secondary dentin.
C. secondary cementum.
D. Primary dentin.

Q12
Excessive formation of scar tissue beyond the wound margin is called

A. a fibroma
B. a keloid
C. a fibro-epithelial polyp.
D. epithelial hyperplasia

Q13
Warfarin (Coumadin) acts by

A. preventing formation of thromboplastin.
B. preventing fibrinogen conversion to fibrin
C. inhibiting the synthesis of prothrombin in the liver
D. incorporating ionic calcium

Q14
Which of the following is a possible causee for a low density radiograph (light film) ?

A. Cold developer
B. Over exposure
C. Imporoper safety light.
D. Excessive developing time

Q15
In radiography, minium magnification and maximum definition are achieved by

A. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and miniumum FFD (focal-film distance)
B. miniumum OFD (object-film distance) and maximum FFD (focal-film distance)
C. maximum OFD (object-film distance) and maximum FFD (focal-film distance).
D. maxiumu OFD (object-film distance) and miniumum FFD (foacal-film distance)

Q16
Epidemiology of disease is best described as the

A. data obtained from sicknes surveys
B useual low level of disease normally found within a population
C. control of disease
D. study of disease patterns in a population.
Q17
During the setting phase, a dental stone mixture will exhibit

A. Expansion
B. contraction
C. loss in compressive strength
D. gain in moisture content

Q18
Filters are placed in the path of the x-ray beam to

A. increase contrast.
B. reduce film density
C. reduce exposure time
D. reduce patient rediation dose.

Q19
Dental porcelain has

1. Low compressive strengh
2. high hardness
3. high tensile strength
4. low impact strength

A. 1 2 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of the above

Q20
A patient who uses nitroglycerin has

A. rheumatic heart disease
B. asthma
C. coronary artery disease
D. high blood pressure
E. Cardiac arrhythmia

Q21
Particulate hydroxypatite, when placed subperiostially.

1. is highly biocompatible.
2. has a low incidence of secondary infection following surgery
3. has a tendency to migrate following insertion
4. induces bone formation throughout the implanted material

A. 1 2 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of the above

Q22
Myxoedema is associated with

A. insufficient paparthyroid hormone
B. excessive parathyroid hormone
C. insufficient thryoid hormone.
D. excessive thryoid hormone.

Q23
In the early stage, a periapical abscess can be differentiated from a lateral periodontal abscess by

A. pain.
B. type of exudate
C. tenderness to percussion.
D. response of pulp to electrical stimulation
E. radiographic examination

Q24
Which of the following conditions is characterized by abnormally large pulp chambers ?

A. Amelogenesis imperecta
B. regional odontodysplasia
C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
D. Dentinal dysplasia Type 1

Q25
Osteomyelitis of the mandible may follow

1. Radiotherapy
2. dentoalveolar absecess
3. fracture
4. Vincent's angina

A. 1 2 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of the above

Q26
Which of the following is /are associated with an unerupted tooth ?

1. odontogenic adenomatoid tumor.
2. periapical cemental dysplasia
3. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor
4. cementoblastoma

A. 1 2 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of the above

Q27
Ankylosis is commonly

A. associated with a non-vital pulp
B. the result of root fracture
C. associated with a root penetrating cavity.
D. resulting in a submerged tooth , out of occlusion
E. found in permanent teeth

Q28
An ameloblastoma is most frequently found in

A. the anterior region of the maxilla
B. the mandible, near the junction of the body and the ramus.
C. the posterior region of the maxilla.
D. in the anterior region of the mandible near the midline

Q29
Which of the following has the highest rate of recurrence ?

A. Odontogenic Keratocyst
B. Nasoalveolar cyst
C. median palatal cyst
D. Incisive canal cyst

Q30
For which of the following pathological condition would a lower centeral incisor tooth be expected to respond to heat, cold and electric pulp test ?

A. apical cyst
B. Acute apical abscess
C. Periapical osteofibrosis
D. Chronic apical periodontitis

Q 31
The microscopic appearance of the cnetral giant cell granuloma of the jaws is similar to that of lesions which occur in

A. hyperpaprathyroidism
B. paget's diesease
C. cleidocranial dysplasia (dysostosis)
D. hyperpituitarism

Q32
An ameloblastoma can develop from the epithelial lining of which of the following cysts ?

A. periapical
B. dentigerous
C. residual
D. lateral periodontal

Q33
Intermittent painful swelling in the submandibular region that increase s at mealtime is indicative of

A. a ranula
B. a blockage of Wharton's duct
C. Ludwig's angina
D. a blockage of Stensen's duct.
E. an epidemic parotitis.

Q34
Upon setting a mixture of plaster of Paris and water will exhibit

A. loss in compressive strengh
B. expansion
C. gain in moisture content
D. contraction

Q35
Upon examination of an edentulous patient, it is observed that the tuberosities contact the retromolar pads at the correct occusal vertical dimenion. The treatment of choice is to

A. reduce the retromolar pads surgically to provide the necessary clearance
B. reduce the tuberosities srgically to provide the necessary clearance.
C. contruct new dentures at an increased occlusal vertical dimension to gain the necessary clearance.
D. proceed with construciton of the denture and reduce the posterior extension of the mandibular denture to eliminate interference

Q36
In the design of a removable partial denture, guiding planes are made

A. parallel to the long axis of the tooth.
B. parallel to the path of insertion
C. at a right angle to the occlusal plane
D. at a right angle to the major connector.

Q37
A fracture in an all ceramic crown may be caused by

1. inadequate ceramic thickness
2. sharp line angles in the tooth preparation
3. excessive occlusal load
4. use of an inappropriate luting material

A. 1 2 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of the above

Pls correct me if I am wrong

sonibun · Apr 13, 2006

nkhalid said:
Hi,
14. Placement of maxillary anterior teeth in complete dentures too far superiorly and anteriorly might result in difficulty in pronouncing which of the following sounds?
A. F and Y
B. D and t
C. S and th
D. J and ch
I think it,s C, correct me if I,m wrong.

S th sound have something to do with horizontal overlap i think

sonibun · Apr 13, 2006

A fracture in an all ceramic crown may be caused by

1. inadequate ceramic thickness
2. sharp line angles in the tooth preparation
3. excessive occlusal load
4. use of an inappropriate luting material

A. 1 2 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of the above
ans E as gic resin reinforced causes miniature cracks

sonibun · Apr 13, 2006

sonibun said:
S th sound have something to do with horizontal overlap i think

plz correct me

sonibun · Apr 13, 2006

Q: What is the AHA recommendation for SBE prophylaxis for an adult who is allergic to penicillin?

a) Augmentin 1 g orally 1 hour pre-op

b) Erythromycin 2 g orally 1 hour pre-op

c) Clindamycin 600 mg orally 1 hour pre-op

d) Vancomycin 1 g IV 30 minutes pre-op

e) Ciprofloxacin 500 mg orally 30 minutes pre-op

For which of the following cardiac conditions is SBE antibiotic prophylaxis recommended?

a). Prosthetic cardiac valve

b). Mitral valve prolapse with valvular regurgitation

c). Previous rheumatic fever with valvar dysfunction

d). All of the above

e). a and b only

sonibun · Apr 13, 2006

Which of the following sinuses contain arterial blood:
a. sagittal sinus
b. transverse sinus
c. carotid sinus
d. sigmoid sinus
e. confluens of sinuses
ans c

2. The cavernous sinus contains which of the following:
a. external carotid artery
b. optic nerve
c. mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve
d. pituitary gland
e. internal carotid artery
ans e
3. Which of the following statements about foramina is true:
a. the optic nerve exits the skull through the superior orbital fissure
b. the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve exits the cranial cavity through the inferior orbital fissure
c. the facial nerve and the vestibulocochlear nerve both exit the cranial cavity through the internal acoustic meatus
d. the glossopharyngeal nerve exits the skull through the hypoglossal canal
e. the trochlear nerve exits the skull through the foramen spinosum
ans c????
4. Arachnoid villi:
a. are situated in the spinal cord
b. are an integral part of the sigmoid sinus
c. produce cerebrospinal fluid
d. pass cerebrospinal fluid to the venous system
e. are part of the true dura
ans c

5. Which of the following statements regarding the scalp is true:
a. the sensory innervation to the scalp is supplied entirely by ventral rami of spinal nerves
b. the endosteal layer of dura mater is the deepest layer of the scalp
c. the galea aponeurotica is connected to the occipital and frontal bellies of the occipitofrontalis muscle
d. the scalp is poorly vascularized and wounds to it do not bleed excessively
e. the scalp consists of 6 layers
Ansc

6. Which of the following statements regarding the muscles of facial expression is true:
a. the buccinator muscle is innervated by the buccal branch of the trigeminal nerve (V3)
b. the mentalis muscle makes you smile
c. the orbicularis oculi muscle surrounds the mouth and closes and protrudes the lips
d. the buccinator muscle has insertions into the upper and lower lips
e. all muscles of facial expression are innervated by the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve
ANS D
7. Cutaneous sensory branches of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve (V1) include:
a. temporal, zygomatic, buccal, mandibular, cervical
b. supraorbital, supratrochlear, lacrimal, infratrochlear
c. auriculotemporal, mental, buccal
d. infraorbital, zygomaticofacial, zygomaticotemporal
e. lesser occipital, greater occipital, posterior auricular
ANS b
8. Which of the following is white matter of the brain:
a. cerebral cortex
b. cerebellar cortex
c. corpus callosum
d. thalamus
e. lentiform nucleus
ans c???????

9. Which of the following is located in the temporal lobe of the cerebrum:
a. transverse gyri of Heschl
b. primary visual cortex
c. lentiform nucleus
d. primary sensory cortex
e. third ventricle
ans b?????

10. Which statement about tracts and fibers in the brain is false:
a. the pyramidal tracts carry fibers from the precentral gyri
b. the somatic sensory tracts synapse in the thalamus
c. primary and secondary cortical areas are connected by association fibers
d. the optic tracts synapse in the lateral geniculate nuclei
e. the anterior commissure connects the two halves of the mesencephalon
????????????
11. Which of the following is a basal ganglion of the forebrain:
a. amygdala
b. mammillary body
c. inferior colliculus
d. olive
e. nucleus ruber

??????????????

12. Which of the following is a symptom of a destructive lesion at the lateral surface of the occipital lobe:
a. inability to recognize objects seen
b. blindness
c. inability to comprehend spoken language
d. inability to produce language
e. inability to identify objects by touch alone
ans b

13. Which of the following matches between a part of the ventricular system and a part of the brain is false:
a. first ventricle forebrain
b. second ventricle forebrain
c. third ventricle forebrain
d. cerebral aqueduct midbrain
e. fourth ventricle midbrain
???????????????

14. The five lobes of the cerebrum are:
a. frontal, temporal, parietal, sphenoidal, occipital
b. frontal, temporal, parietal, occipital, insula
c. frontal, temporal, parietal, occipital, petrosal
d. frontal, temporal, parietal, parieto occipital, occipital
e. frontal, temporal, parietal, olfactory, occipital
ans e

15. Which of the following is a correct pathway of visual information:
a. retina optic nerve optic tract lateral geniculate body internal capsule occipital lobe
b. retina optic tract optic nerve lateral geniculate body internal capsule occipital lobe
c. retina optic nerve optic tract medial geniculate body internal capsule occipital lobe
d. retina optic nerve optic tract lateral geniculate body internal capsule Wernicke's area
e. retina optic nerve optic tract inferior colliculus internal capsule occipital lobe
?????????????

sonibun · Apr 13, 2006

Which statement about blood vessels of the brain is false:
a. the anterior cerebral artery is located in the longitudinal fissure
b. the middle cerebral artery is located in the lateral fissure
c. the superior cerebellar artery is a branch of the vertebral artery
d. the two vertebral arteries join to form the basilar artery
e. the anterior communicating artery connects the two anterior cerebral arteries

17. Which of the following bones does not contribute to the orbit:
a. frontal
b. maxilla
c. ethmoid
d. sphenoid
e. temporal
ans e

18. A lesion of the right optic tract causes:
a. blindness in the right eye
b. blindness in the left eye
c. tunnel vision
d. blindness in the periphery of the left visual field
e. blindness in the periphery of the right visual field
????????

19. Parasympathetics leaving the brain on the oculomotor nerve:
a. enter the orbit through the optic canal
b. supply motor innervation to the lacrimal gland
c. synapse in the pterygopalatine ganglion
d. supply motor innervation to dilator pupillae and sphincter pupillae
e. cause constriction of the pupil and accommodation
ans d

20. A functional deficit in the inferior oblique muscle can be revealed by asking the patient to:
a. elevate the adducted eye
b. depress the adducted eye
c. elevate the abducted eye
d. depress the abducted eye
e. depress the eye straight down

21. Which statement about aqueous humor is false:
a. it fills the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye
b. it nourishes the cornea and lens
c. it fills the conjunctival sac
d. if drained improperly causes a rise in intraocular pressure resulting in glaucoma
e. it passes through the pupil

22. The tensor tympani and stapedius muscles:
a. are innervated by the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve and the facial nerve
b. are innervated by the chorda tympani
c. attach to the malleus and incus
d. lie within the inner ear
e. function to open the auditory tube
ansa

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[

23. The tympanic membrane is usually concave externally, with a small depression in the concavity called the:
a. umbo
b. dumbo
c. rambo
d. limbo
e. Eustachio
ans a

24. Which of the following muscles of mastication is matched with its correct action(s):
a. temporalis abduction (depression) and retraction of mandible
b. superior head of lateral pterygoid retraction of mandible
c. inferior head of lateral pterygoid protraction of mandible
d. masseter abduction (depression) and protraction of mandible
e. medial pterygoid adduction (elevation) and retraction of mandible
ans e

25. The parotid gland receives its parasympathetic innervation via which route (cranial nerve on which it leaves the brain; ganglion in which it synapses):
a. vagus; pterygopalatine ganglion
b. vagus; otic ganglion
c. glossopharyngeal nerve; otic ganglion
d. glossopharyngeal nerve; pterygopalatine ganglion
e. chorda tympani; submandibular ganglion
ans c

26. Which nerve is not a branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve:
a. inferior alveolar n.
b. posterior superior alveolar n.
c. nerve to mylohyoid
d. auriculotemporal n.
e. deep temporal n.
ans b

27. The muscles of the pharynx are innervated by:
a. vagus and glossopharyngeal nn.
b. vagus, glossopharyngeal and spinal accessory nn.
c. vagus, glossopharyngeal and hypoglossal nn.
d. glossopharyngeal, spinal accessory and hypoglossal nn.
e. superior laryngeal n.
ans a

28. The mucosa of the pharynx above the soft palate is innervated by:
a. mandibular division of the trigeminal n.
b. maxillary division of the trigeminal n.
c. inferior laryngeal nerve
d. recurrent laryngeal nerve
e internal laryngeal nerve
??????????

29. Which match between a pharyngeal muscle and its origin is false:
a. superior constrictor pterygomandibular ligament
b. middle constrictor thyroid cartilage
c. inferior constrictor cricoid cartilage
d. palatopharyngeus soft palate
e. stylopharyngeus styloid process
ans c
30. Which of the following structures does not lie in the pharynx or its walls:
a. palatine tonsil
b. torus tubarius
c. posterior 1/3 of the tongue
d. epiglottis
e. vocal fold

31. The vocal folds are abducted by:
a. cricothyroid muscles
b. the conus elasticus
c. arytenoid muscles
d. posterior cricoarytenoid muscles
e. lateral cricoarytenoid muscles
ans d

32. When recovering objects lodged in the piriform fossa, one must be careful to avoid damaging the:
a. internal laryngeal nerve
b. external laryngeal nerve
c. inferior laryngeal nerve
d. pharyngeal nerve
e. recurrent laryngeal nerve
ans a

33. Which nerve is associated with the correct symptom(s) resulting from its damage:
a. sympathetic trunk ptosis (drooping) of upper eyelid, constricted pupil
b. oculomotor nerve constricted pupil
c. facial nerve paralysis of tensor tympani
d. abducens inability to adduct the eye
e. hypoglossal nerve inability to elevate the soft palate
ans b

34. The palatine tonsil lies:
a. between the palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal folds
b. in the soft palate
c. in the roof of the nasal pharynx
d. in the pharyngeal part of the tongue
e. between the palatopharyngeal and glossoepiglottic folds
ans e

35. The muscle primarily responsible for protruding the tongue is the:
a. hyoglossus
b. genioglossus
c. palatoglossus
d. geniohyoid
e. styloglossus
ans b

36. Which of the following structures is not enveloped by (deep to) the prevertebral fascia:
a. vagus nerve
b. vertebral artery
c. anterior scalene muscle
d. epaxial muscles
e. the third cervical vertebra
??????????

37. Which of the following is not a cutaneous nerve of the cervical plexus:
a. great auricular nerve
b. transverse cervical nerve
c. supraclavicular nerve
d. lesser occipital nerve
e. phrenic nerve

38. Which statement is true about the spinal accessory nerve:
a. it is not visible in the posterior triangle
b. it supplies somatic motor innervation to the sternocleidomastoid muscle
c. it does not supply motor innervation to trapezius but does supply the anterior belly of the digastric
d. it is primarily special sensory to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue
e. it has one cutaneous branch, the greater occipital nerve

39. The retropharyngeal space:
a. lies in a column of fascia superficial to the investing layer of deep fascia
b. contains all viscera of the neck
c. contains the vertebral arteries in the foramina transversaria
d. lies between the pharynx (and its investing fascia) and the prevertebral fascia
e. lies between the trachea and the infrahyoid (strap) muscles
ans d

40. The internal laryngeal nerve:
a. supplies motor innervation to cricothryroid
b. contains parasympathetic fibers from the vagus nerve that supply the thyroid gland
c. supplies the sternothyroid muscle
d. supplies somatic sensory innervation to the skin over the anterior part of the neck
e. supplies somatic sensory innervation to the larynx above the vocal folds
ans e

41. Which of the following statements about the ansa cervicalis is false:
a. it is comprised of fibers from cervical spinal nerves C1 C3
b. it supplies motor innervation to the infrahyoid muscles
c. it lies superficial to the internal jugular vein
d. its parasympathetic component supplies the carotid body adjacent to it
e. it contains postganglionic sympathetic fibers from the superior cervical ganglion

42. Which of the following is true of the venous circulation of the head and neck:
a. the retromandibular vein often communicates with both the internal and external jugular veins
b. the facial vein drains the mandibular dental arcade
c. the anterior jugular vein is contained within the carotid sheath
d. the superior thyroid vein lies on the sternocleidomastoid muscle
e. the external jugular vein is the major source of venous drainage from the thyroid gland

sonibun · Apr 13, 2006

43. Which of the following pairs of a nerve and artery can be found traveling together:
a. the transverse cervical artery and the transverse cervical nerve from the cervical plexus
b. the superficial temporal artery and the auriculotemporal nerve
c. the lingual artery and the right recurrent laryngeal nerve
d. the lesser occipital nerve and the lingual artery
e. the hypoglossal nerve and the posterior auricular artery

44. Which of the following spaces in the nasal cavity is correctly matched with sinus(es) emptying into it:
a. inferior meatus infundibulum
b. sphenoethmoidal recess posterior ethmoidal air cells
c. middle meatus maxillary sinus, middle ethmoidal air cells
d. vestibule nasolacrimal duct
e. choana auditory tube
ans c

45. Sensory innervation to the nasal cavity comes from:
a. ophthalmic and maxillary divisions of the trigeminal nerve
b. maxillary and mandibular divisions of the trigeminal nerve
c. the facial nerve
d. glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves
e. the internal laryngeal nerve
ans a

46. Which of the following nasal structures is correctly matched with the bones/cartilages that primarily make it up:
a. hard palate zygomatic, maxilla and palatine bones
b. roof of nasal cavity occipital bone and ethmoid bone
c. nasal septum ethmoid bone, vomer, septal cartilage
d. vestibule arytenoid cartilages
e. inferior nasal concha ethmoid

47. The muscles of the soft palate:
a. are innervated by the glossopharyngeal n. and the vagus
b. all lie in the oropharynx
c. are innervated by the mandibular division of the trigeminal n. and the vagus n.
d. are smooth muscle
e. all pass through the gap between the superior constrictor and the skull.

48. Which of the following is the correct number of teeth found in a human mouth:
a. 4 incisors, 4 canines, 8 premolars, 8 molars
b. 8 incisors, 4 canines, 8 premolars, 12 molars
c. 8 incisors, 8 canines, 8 premolars, 8 molars
d. 8 incisors, 4 canines, 10 premolars,10 molars
e. 4 incisors, 8 canines, 8 premolars, 8 molars

49. The anterior fontanelle:
a. lies between the mastoid part of the temporal bone and the occipital bone
b. lies at pterion
c. lies in the lambdoid suture
d. lies between the frontal and parietal bones
e. is present in a teenager

50. Which statement about cranial nerves is true:
a. cranial nerves III, VII, IX and X contain parasympathetic fibers
b. cranial nerve VII exits the brain stem anterior to the pons
c. cranial nerve VII has only motor fibers
d. cranial nerve VI has motor and sensory fibers
e. cranial nerve XII exits the brain case through the jugular foramen

51. Schmutz is German for:
a. French wine
b. campaign finance reform
c. a famous anatomist
d. belly button lint
e. schmutz

sonibun · Apr 13, 2006

: What is the most common site in the mandible for a fracture?

a) Angle

b) Symphisis

c) Body

d) Ramus

e) Condylar

dd says body,internet -angle other books says condyle

nkhalid · Apr 13, 2006

HI,

It,s angle of the mandible but some book say it,s the body. Actually the third molar region is the weakest in mandible.

sonibun · Apr 13, 2006

www.rad.washington.edu/ mskbook/facialfx.html
for mandible fractures

nkhalid · Apr 13, 2006

hi,
Thanks for the explaination.

nkhalid · Apr 13, 2006

Hi,
Can anyone please confirm the ans.
what is the first sign of a patient who is suffering from insulin shock?
a. pallor
b. shaking
c. sweating
d. nervousness
On the net it says that it can be any of these I think it,s nervousness but does anybody know the definit answer.
Thanks

sonibun · Apr 13, 2006

nkhalid said:
Hi,
Can anyone please confirm the ans.
what is the first sign of a patient who is suffering from insulin shock?
a. pallor
b. shaking
c. sweating
d. nervousness
On the net it says that it can be any of these I think it,s nervousness but does anybody know the definit answer.
Thanks

i think ant of above in insulin shock blood sugar goes down-hypogycemia and these r sign of hypogycemia

sonibun · Apr 13, 2006

sonibun said:
Q: What is the AHA recommendation for SBE prophylaxis for an adult who is allergic to penicillin?

a) Augmentin 1 g orally 1 hour pre-op

b) Erythromycin 2 g orally 1 hour pre-op

c) Clindamycin 600 mg orally 1 hour pre-op

d) Vancomycin 1 g IV 30 minutes pre-op

e) Ciprofloxacin 500 mg orally 30 minutes pre-op

For which of the following cardiac conditions is SBE antibiotic prophylaxis recommended?

a). Prosthetic cardiac valve

b). Mitral valve prolapse with valvular regurgitation

c). Previous rheumatic fever with valvar dysfunction

d). All of the above

e). a and b only[/QUOTE

no one is trying to solve the questions i have posted

drblack · Apr 13, 2006

Q: What is the AHA recommendation for SBE prophylaxis for an adult who is allergic to penicillin?

a) Augmentin 1 g orally 1 hour pre-op

b) Erythromycin 2 g orally 1 hour pre-op

c) Clindamycin 600 mg orally 1 hour pre-op

d) Vancomycin 1 g IV 30 minutes pre-op

e) Ciprofloxacin 500 mg orally 30 minutes pre-op

For which of the following cardiac conditions is SBE antibiotic prophylaxis recommended?

a). Prosthetic cardiac valve

b). Mitral valve prolapse with valvular regurgitation

c). Previous rheumatic fever with valvar dysfunction

d). All of the above
e). a and b only

manasa · Apr 13, 2006

Q: What is the AHA recommendation for SBE prophylaxis for an adult who is allergic to penicillin?

a) Augmentin 1 g orally 1 hour pre-op

b) Erythromycin 2 g orally 1 hour pre-op*

c) Clindamycin 600 mg orally 1 hour pre-op

d) Vancomycin 1 g IV 30 minutes pre-op

e) Ciprofloxacin 500 mg orally 30 minutes pre-op

For which of the following cardiac conditions is SBE antibiotic prophylaxis recommended?

a). Prosthetic cardiac valve

b). Mitral valve prolapse with valvular regurgitation

c). Previous rheumatic fever with valvar dysfunction

d). All of the above**

e). a and b only
#127

plz check the ans

Which of the following sinuses contain arterial blood:
a. sagittal sinus
b. transverse sinus
c. carotid sinus*
d. sigmoid sinus
e. confluens of sinuses

2. The cavernous sinus contains which of the following:
a. external carotid artery
b. optic nerve
c. mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve
d. pituitary gland
e. internal carotid artery*

3. Which of the following statements about foramina is true:
a. the optic nerve exits the skull through the superior orbital fissure
b. the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve exits the cranial cavity through the inferior orbital fissure
c. the facial nerve and the vestibulocochlear nerve both exit the cranial cavity through the internal acoustic meatus*
d. the glossopharyngeal nerve exits the skull through the hypoglossal canal
e. the trochlear nerve exits the skull through the foramen spinosum
ans c????
4. Arachnoid villi:
a. are situated in the spinal cord
b. are an integral part of the sigmoid sinus
c. produce cerebrospinal fluid
d. pass cerebrospinal fluid to the venous system*
e. are part of the true dura

5. Which of the following statements regarding the scalp is true:
a. the sensory innervation to the scalp is supplied entirely by ventral rami of spinal nerves
b. the endosteal layer of dura mater is the deepest layer of the scalp
c. the galea aponeurotica is connected to the occipital and frontal bellies of the occipitofrontalis muscle*
d. the scalp is poorly vascularized and wounds to it do not bleed excessively
e. the scalp consists of 6 layers

6. Which of the following statements regarding the muscles of facial expression is true:
a. the buccinator muscle is innervated by the buccal branch of the trigeminal nerve (V3)
b. the mentalis muscle makes you smile
c. the orbicularis oculi muscle surrounds the mouth and closes and protrudes the lips
d. the buccinator muscle has insertions into the upper and lower lips*
e. all muscles of facial expression are innervated by the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve
ANS D
7. Cutaneous sensory branches of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve (V1) include:
a. temporal, zygomatic, buccal, mandibular, cervical
b. supraorbital, supratrochlear, lacrimal, infratrochlear*
c. auriculotemporal, mental, buccal
d. infraorbital, zygomaticofacial, zygomaticotemporal
e. lesser occipital, greater occipital, posterior auricular

8. Which of the following is white matter of the brain:
a. cerebral cortex
b. cerebellar cortex
c. corpus callosum*
d. thalamus
e. lentiform nucleus

9. Which of the following is located in the temporal lobe of the cerebrum:
a. transverse gyri of Heschl*
b. primary visual cortex
c. lentiform nucleus
d. primary sensory cortex
e. third ventricle

10. Which statement about tracts and fibers in the brain is false:
a. the pyramidal tracts carry fibers from the precentral gyri
b. the somatic sensory tracts synapse in the thalamus
c. primary and secondary cortical areas are connected by association fibers
d. the optic tracts synapse in the lateral geniculate nuclei
e. the anterior commissure connects the two halves of the mesencephalon*

11. Which of the following is a basal ganglion of the forebrain:
a. amygdala*
b. mammillary body
c. inferior colliculus
d. olive
e. nucleus rub

manasa · Apr 13, 2006

12. Which of the following is a symptom of a destructive lesion at the lateral surface of the occipital lobe:
a. inability to recognize objects seen
b. blindness*
c. inability to comprehend spoken language
d. inability to produce language
e. inability to identify objects by touch alone
ans b

13. Which of the following matches between a part of the ventricular system and a part of the brain is false:
a. first ventricle forebrain
b. second ventricle forebrain
c. third ventricle forebrain
d. cerebral aqueduct midbrain
e. fourth ventricle midbrain*
???????????????

14. The five lobes of the cerebrum are:
a. frontal, temporal, parietal, sphenoidal, occipital
b. frontal, temporal, parietal, occipital, insula *
c. frontal, temporal, parietal, occipital, petrosal
d. frontal, temporal, parietal, parieto occipital, occipital
e. frontal, temporal, parietal, olfactory, occipital
ans e

15. Which of the following is a correct pathway of visual information:
a. retina optic nerve optic tract lateral geniculate body internal capsule occipital lobe*
b. retina optic tract optic nerve lateral geniculate body internal capsule occipital lobe
c. retina optic nerve optic tract medial geniculate body internal capsule occipital lobe
d. retina optic nerve optic tract lateral geniculate body internal capsule Wernicke's area
e. retina optic nerve optic tract inferior colliculus internal capsule occipital lobe

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#128

sonibun
Registered User
100+ Posts

Join Date: Dec 2003

Which statement about blood vessels of the brain is false:
a. the anterior cerebral artery is located in the longitudinal fissure
b. the middle cerebral artery is located in the lateral fissure
c. the superior cerebellar artery is a branch of the vertebral artery*
d. the two vertebral arteries join to form the basilar artery
e. the anterior communicating artery connects the two anterior cerebral arteries

17. Which of the following bones does not contribute to the orbit:
a. frontal
b. maxilla
c. ethmoid
d. sphenoid
e. temporal*

18. A lesion of the right optic tract causes:
a. blindness in the right eye
b. blindness in the left eye*
c. tunnel vision
d. blindness in the periphery of the left visual field
e. blindness in the periphery of the right visual field

19. Parasympathetics leaving the brain on the oculomotor nerve:
a. enter the orbit through the optic canal
b. supply motor innervation to the lacrimal gland
c. synapse in the pterygopalatine ganglion
d. supply motor innervation to dilator pupillae and sphincter pupillae*
e. cause constriction of the pupil and accommodation

20. A functional deficit in the inferior oblique muscle can be revealed by asking the patient to:
a. elevate the adducted eye
b. depress the adducted eye
c. elevate the abducted eye*
d. depress the abducted eye
e. depress the eye straight down

21. Which statement about aqueous humor is false:
a. it fills the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye*
b. it nourishes the cornea and lens
c. it fills the conjunctival sac
d. if drained improperly causes a rise in intraocular pressure resulting in glaucoma
e. it passes through the pupil

22. The tensor tympani and stapedius muscles:
a. are innervated by the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve and the facial nerve*
b. are innervated by the chorda tympani
c. attach to the malleus and incus
d. lie within the inner ear
e. function to open the auditory tube
ansa

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[

23. The tympanic membrane is usually concave externally, with a small depression in the concavity called the:
a. umbo*
b. dumbo
c. rambo
d. limbo
e. Eustachio
ans a

24. Which of the following muscles of mastication is matched with its correct action(s):
a. temporalis abduction (depression) and retraction of mandible
b. superior head of lateral pterygoid retraction of mandible
c. inferior head of lateral pterygoid protraction of mandible
d. masseter abduction (depression) and protraction of mandible
e. medial pterygoid adduction (elevation) and retraction of mandible*

25. The parotid gland receives its parasympathetic innervation via which route (cranial nerve on which it leaves the brain; ganglion in which it synapses):
a. vagus; pterygopalatine ganglion
b. vagus; otic ganglion
c. glossopharyngeal nerve; otic ganglion*
d. glossopharyngeal nerve; pterygopalatine ganglion
e. chorda tympani; submandibular ganglion

26. Which nerve is not a branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve:
a. inferior alveolar n.
b. posterior superior alveolar n. *
c. nerve to mylohyoid
d. auriculotemporal n.
e. deep temporal n.

27. The muscles of the pharynx are innervated by:
a. vagus and glossopharyngeal nn.*
b. vagus, glossopharyngeal and spinal accessory nn.
c. vagus, glossopharyngeal and hypoglossal nn.
d. glossopharyngeal, spinal accessory and hypoglossal nn.
e. superior laryngeal n.
ans a

28. The mucosa of the pharynx above the soft palate is innervated by:
a. mandibular division of the trigeminal n.
b. maxillary division of the trigeminal n. *
c. inferior laryngeal nerve
d. recurrent laryngeal nerve
e internal laryngeal nerve

29. Which match between a pharyngeal muscle and its origin is false:
a. superior constrictor pterygomandibular ligament
b. middle constrictor thyroid cartilage*
c. inferior constrictor cricoid cartilage
d. palatopharyngeus soft palate
e. stylopharyngeus styloid process

30. Which of the following structures does not lie in the pharynx or its walls:
a. palatine tonsil
b. torus tubarius
c. posterior 1/3 of the tongue
d. epiglottis
e. vocal fold*

31. The vocal folds are abducted by:
a. cricothyroid muscles
b. the conus elasticus
c. arytenoid muscles
d. posterior cricoarytenoid muscles*
e. lateral cricoarytenoid muscles

32. When recovering objects lodged in the piriform fossa, one must be careful to avoid damaging the:
a. internal laryngeal nerve*
b. external laryngeal nerve
c. inferior laryngeal nerve
d. pharyngeal nerve
e. recurrent laryngeal nerve

33. Which nerve is associated with the correct symptom(s) resulting from its damage:
a. sympathetic trunk ptosis (drooping) of upper eyelid, constricted pupil
b. oculomotor nerve constricted pupil*
c. facial nerve paralysis of tensor tympani
d. abducens inability to adduct the eye
e. hypoglossal nerve inability to elevate the soft palate

34. The palatine tonsil lies:
a. between the palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal folds*
b. in the soft palate
c. in the roof of the nasal pharynx
d. in the pharyngeal part of the tongue
e. between the palatopharyngeal and glossoepiglottic folds

35. The muscle primarily responsible for protruding the tongue is the:
a. hyoglossus
b. genioglossus*
c. palatoglossus
d. geniohyoid
e. styloglossus

36. Which of the following structures is not enveloped by (deep to) the prevertebral fascia:
a. vagus nerve*
b. vertebral artery
c. anterior scalene muscle
d. epaxial muscles
e. the third cervical vertebra

37. Which of the following is not a cutaneous nerve of the cervical plexus:
a. great auricular nerve
b. transverse cervical nerve
c. supraclavicular nerve
d. lesser occipital nerve
e. phrenic nerve*

38. Which statement is true about the spinal accessory nerve:
a. it is not visible in the posterior triangle
b. it supplies somatic motor innervation to the sternocleidomastoid muscle*
c. it does not supply motor innervation to trapezius but does supply the anterior belly of the digastric
d. it is primarily special sensory to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue
e. it has one cutaneous branch, the greater occipital nerve

39. The retropharyngeal space:
a. lies in a column of fascia superficial to the investing layer of deep fascia
b. contains all viscera of the neck
c. contains the vertebral arteries in the foramina transversaria
d. lies between the pharynx (and its investing fascia) and the prevertebral fascia*
e. lies between the trachea and the infrahyoid (strap) muscles

40. The internal laryngeal nerve:
a. supplies motor innervation to cricothryroid
b. contains parasympathetic fibers from the vagus nerve that supply the thyroid gland
c. supplies the sternothyroid muscle
d. supplies somatic sensory innervation to the skin over the anterior part of the neck
e. supplies somatic sensory innervation to the larynx above the vocal folds*

41. Which of the following statements about the ansa cervicalis is false:
a. it is comprised of fibers from cervical spinal nerves C1 C3*
b. it supplies motor innervation to the infrahyoid muscles
c. it lies superficial to the internal jugular vein
d. its parasympathetic component supplies the carotid body adjacent to it
e. it contains postganglionic sympathetic fibers from the superior cervical ganglion

42. Which of the following is true of the venous circulation of the head and neck:
a. the retromandibular vein often communicates with both the internal and external jugular veins*
b. the facial vein drains the mandibular dental arcade
c. the anterior jugular vein is contained within the carotid sheath
d. the superior thyroid vein lies on the sternocleidomastoid muscle
e. the external jugular vein is the major source of venous drainage from the thyroid gland

sonibun · Apr 14, 2006

drblack said:
Q: What is the AHA recommendation for SBE prophylaxis for an adult who is allergic to penicillin?

a) Augmentin 1 g orally 1 hour pre-op

b) Erythromycin 2 g orally 1 hour pre-op

c) Clindamycin 600 mg orally 1 hour pre-op

d) Vancomycin 1 g IV 30 minutes pre-op

e) Ciprofloxacin 500 mg orally 30 minutes pre-op
ans is a right but why not erythromicin

For which of the following cardiac conditions is SBE antibiotic prophylaxis recommended?

a). Prosthetic cardiac valve

b). Mitral valve prolapse with valvular regurgitation

c). Previous rheumatic fever with valvar dysfunction

d). All of the above
e). a and b only

ans is E

bridge · Apr 14, 2006

Hi Sonibun

Can you please explain why E and not D like black has said coz according to me too it should be D.

nkhalid · Apr 14, 2006

Hi,
I think the answer should be D.
Please refer to following link
http://www.eapd.gr/Guidelines/Guidelines_Antibiotics.htm

manasa · Apr 14, 2006

for the question on sabe I was wrong .My answer was based on JAMA 1990. I was quite blind while answering the question, for erythromycin is the one usually given to people allergic to Pn.

Check this link
http://www.americanheart.org/presenter.jhtml?identifier=11086
As per that it's clindamycin 600mg given orally 1hr before the procedure.Hope this helps.

manasa · Apr 14, 2006

43. Which of the following pairs of a nerve and artery can be found traveling together:
a. the transverse cervical artery and the transverse cervical nerve from the cervical plexus
b. the superficial temporal artery and the auriculotemporal nerve*
c. the lingual artery and the right recurrent laryngeal nerve
d. the lesser occipital nerve and the lingual artery
e. the hypoglossal nerve and the posterior auricular artery

44. Which of the following spaces in the nasal cavity is correctly matched with sinus(es) emptying into it:
a. inferior meatus infundibulum
b. sphenoethmoidal recess posterior ethmoidal air cells
c. middle meatus maxillary sinus, middle ethmoidal air cells*
d. vestibule nasolacrimal duct
e. choana auditory tube
ans c

45. Sensory innervation to the nasal cavity comes from:
a. ophthalmic and maxillary divisions of the trigeminal nerve*
b. maxillary and mandibular divisions of the trigeminal nerve
c. the facial nerve
d. glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves
e. the internal laryngeal nerve
ans a

46. Which of the following nasal structures is correctly matched with the bones/cartilages that primarily make it up:
a. hard palate zygomatic, maxilla and palatine bones
b. roof of nasal cavity occipital bone and ethmoid bone
c. nasal septum ethmoid bone, vomer, septal cartilage*
d. vestibule arytenoid cartilages
e. inferior nasal concha ethmoid

47. The muscles of the soft palate:
a. are innervated by the glossopharyngeal n. and the vagus
b. all lie in the oropharynx*
c. are innervated by the mandibular division of the trigeminal n. and the vagus n.
d. are smooth muscle
e. all pass through the gap between the superior constrictor and the skull.

48. Which of the following is the correct number of teeth found in a human mouth:
a. 4 incisors, 4 canines, 8 premolars, 8 molars
b. 8 incisors, 4 canines, 8 premolars, 12 molars*
c. 8 incisors, 8 canines, 8 premolars, 8 molars
d. 8 incisors, 4 canines, 10 premolars,10 molars
e. 4 incisors, 8 canines, 8 premolars, 8 molars

49. The anterior fontanelle:
a. lies between the mastoid part of the temporal bone and the occipital bone
b. lies at pterion
c. lies in the lambdoid suture
d. lies between the frontal and parietal bones*
e. is present in a teenager

50. Which statement about cranial nerves is true:
a. cranial nerves III, VII, IX and X contain parasympathetic fibers*
b. cranial nerve VII exits the brain stem anterior to the pons
c. cranial nerve VII has only motor fibers
d. cranial nerve VI has motor and sensory fibers
e. cranial nerve XII exits the brain case through the jugular foramen

51. Schmutz is German for:
a. French wine
b. campaign finance reform
c. a famous anatomist
d. belly button lint
e. schmutz *

sonibun · Apr 14, 2006

: What is the AHA recommendation for SBE prophylaxis for an adult who is allergic to penicillin?

a) Augmentin 1 g orally 1 hour pre-op

b) Erythromycin 2 g orally 1 hour pre-op

c) Clindamycin 600 mg orally 1 hour pre-opd) Vancomycin 1 g IV 30 minutes pre-op

e) Ciprofloxacin 500 mg orally 30 minutes pre-op
ans is a right but why not erythromicin

For which of the following cardiac conditions is SBE antibiotic prophylaxis recommended?

a). Prosthetic cardiac valve

b). Mitral valve prolapse with valvular regurgitation

c). Previous rheumatic fever with valvar dysfunction

d). All of the above
e). a and b only
so these answers r confirmed

sonibun · Apr 14, 2006

47. The muscles of the soft palate:
a. are innervated by the glossopharyngeal n. and the vagus
b. all lie in the oropharynx*
c. are innervated by the mandibular division of the trigeminal n. and the vagus n.
d. are smooth muscle
e. all pass through the gap between the superior constrictor and the skull.
why not c

sonibun · Apr 14, 2006

nkhalid said:
HI,

It,s angle of the mandible but some book say it,s the body. Actually the third molar region is the weakest in mandible.

not the condylar area

manasa · Apr 14, 2006

You are right .The ans is c .I double checked it. Thx for helping me find the right answer.

sonibun · Apr 15, 2006

29. The positioning of a cast to be surveyed for designing a removable partial denture framework is determined by all of the following EXCEPT:

parallel guide planes T
retention areas T
interferences from soft and hard tissue undercuts T
esthetics T
tripod marks F

30. In a Kennedy Class I RPD, which of the following are indications for lingual plate major connector.

1 loose anterior teeth
2 high frenum attachments
3 extreme vertical resorption of residual ridges allowing little horizontal support
4 inadequate space between free marginal gingiva and lingual sulcus T pp24

1,4
2,4
1,2,3
2,3,4
all of the above

sonibun · Apr 15, 2006

which is better lab inlay resin or direct composite resin?????????

may 2006 EE Preperation

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