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So based on Pathoma and others, palpable purpura seems to be associated with vasculitis such as HSP, whereas "purpura" not palpable (I am assuming that's the case, pls correct me if I am wrong.) is associated with disorders of primary hemostasis such as ITP, TTP, and HUS. Dr. Sattar did point out "palpable purpura" is specifically associated with small vessel vsculitis, but I don't recall him explaining it in detail. So what is the deal with purpura being "palpable?" Many thanks in advance.
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