It is from the decks, but the reason I asked this question is that I feel that the explaination given is contradictory.This is what the deck says
ans:Vessicle Formation
The Primary Infection (primary herpetic gingivostomatitis)usulally occurs in a child under ten years of age who had no contact with the type 1 herpes simplex virus and who therefore has no neautralizing antibodies. It may also affect young adults (15-25). Nearly all primary infections are of the subclinical type and one or two mild sores in the mouth which go unnoticed by the parents.
In other children, the primary infection may be manifested by acute symptoms(acute herpetic gingivostomatitis). These include fever; irritability; cervical lymphadenopathy; fiery red gingival tissues; and small,
yellowish vesicles which rupture and result in painful ulcers on the free and attached mucosa. The most serious potential problem in a child with this infection is dehydration due to the child not wanting to eat or drink because of pain.
Of all the herpes viruses, herpes simplex viruses 1 and 2 cause manifestations of recurrent infection in otherwise healthy people.
Correct me if I'm wrong, but from what I understood from the decks it looks like they are saying that if a child has been in contact with the Type 1 herpes simplex virus then the
primary infection will have the fromation of
yellowish vesicles which will later rupture to become ulcers.
I'm a little confused now..Pls do help me out.