Did this patient have a prior orchidopexy (for example for cryptorchidism during childhood)?
If yes, then the lymphatic spread of a testicular seminoma may be aberrant and thus the inguinal nodes the first station --> N1.
This is not an uncommon boards question. The PA field only applies if no prior testicular or inguinal surgery. If there is surgically aberrant lymphatic drainage you have to use a dog leg.
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