Since this is pre-pharmacy...I'm going to be really, really general. I wouldn't use this for the basis for a paper which needs to be fully referenced.
Given that....as ovaries age, their response to FSH & LH decreases, causing shorter follicular phases, fewer ovulations & decreased progesterone production. Eventually, they do not respond, producing little estradiol. Estrogens - now in the form of estrone - still circulate because they are produced from peripheral tissues, however the total estrogen production is much lower. Decreased production of inhibin & estrogen result in increased levels of circulating FSH & LH. This area is still being studied & I wouldn't necessarily state anything as "gospel". We used to think menopause was just a result of decreased estrogen....we now know it involves inhibin A & B & other factors. (The more you learn the more you realize you don't know
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I'm not sure what social medicine & deviance perspective is. I'm guessing those terms were somehow used in your course. But...I'll give it a try & you decide if it fits the context of your course.
From my point of view - when I think of social medicine - I think of what aspects of aging & illness can be mediated by "medicine" & I don't mean medications, rather the field of medicine. For example, the risk of osteoporosis increases because estrogen is decreased. That is a simple outlook & we see that by treating women & men with estrogen, we can slow the process of osteoporosis & its consequences (broken hips, etc with the consequent morbidity). In addition, there is weight gain & increased central adiposity & decreased muscle mass which may be a factor in heart disease. There are so many factors, however, we have found that simple HRT does not alleviate these risks & may indeed pose other more serious risks of disease.
As for deviance perspective - who knows what this means!!! I'm going to go on the basis of deviant from the individuals own "normal"....not deviant from normal - there is a difference!!! Within any one woman...she may exhibit her own certain normal for 20 years....however, at the onset & during menopause - her normal may become shifted. Her concentration may diminish, her frequency & severity of headaches may be altered, her tolerance to foods & temperature may be changed. Keep in mind also that none of this may occur. There are some women who go thru menopause & the only symptom they exhibit is a reduction in menses. That does not mean she is not normal - it is just a shift from her normal.
But...who knows what your professor may be getting at. It sounds as though he/she has a preset notion of what he/she wants you to regurgitate...so...good luck. Hope I've helped!