Hello,
I would appreciate any input on these two questions.
1. I came across this question: “What is the final temperature of 1 mol of gas that performs 50J of work adiabatically? The initial temperature is 0 Celsius. (Gas const = 8.314J/(mol*K))?”
They find the answer by doing PV=nRT, and get Tf = 6 Celsius. I’m wondering why they didn’t do -W = dU = n*cv*dT = 3/2 n*R*dT?
2. On one of the MCAT practice tests (AAMC MCAT Test 3R) in the Biological Sciences section #203 it asks:
“A man is treated with low doses of an estrogen analogue to destroy an estrogen-responsive adrenal tumor. Compared to an age-matched control (no estrogen treatment), this patient’s chances of developing osteoporosis will most likely be:
A. increased
B. decreased
C. approximately the same
D. approximately the same, but the disease will appear at an earlier age
The relevant passage says “the accelerated postmenopausal bone loss in women appears to be directly linked to estrogen deficiency, although the exact mechanism of this linkage is unknown”. (I can post the entire passage if needed)
The explanation says “Administration of estrogen to men would then have no therapeutic effect on bone loss, since they should not be suffering from withdrawal of the hormone, having never had high levels.” But just because they’re not suffering from low estrogen, doesn’t mean more estrogen would have no effect on them? More estrogen could help decrease the risk. Therefore, isn’t B. an equally plausible answer as C (correct answer)?
Thank you.
I would appreciate any input on these two questions.
1. I came across this question: “What is the final temperature of 1 mol of gas that performs 50J of work adiabatically? The initial temperature is 0 Celsius. (Gas const = 8.314J/(mol*K))?”
They find the answer by doing PV=nRT, and get Tf = 6 Celsius. I’m wondering why they didn’t do -W = dU = n*cv*dT = 3/2 n*R*dT?
2. On one of the MCAT practice tests (AAMC MCAT Test 3R) in the Biological Sciences section #203 it asks:
“A man is treated with low doses of an estrogen analogue to destroy an estrogen-responsive adrenal tumor. Compared to an age-matched control (no estrogen treatment), this patient’s chances of developing osteoporosis will most likely be:
A. increased
B. decreased
C. approximately the same
D. approximately the same, but the disease will appear at an earlier age
The relevant passage says “the accelerated postmenopausal bone loss in women appears to be directly linked to estrogen deficiency, although the exact mechanism of this linkage is unknown”. (I can post the entire passage if needed)
The explanation says “Administration of estrogen to men would then have no therapeutic effect on bone loss, since they should not be suffering from withdrawal of the hormone, having never had high levels.” But just because they’re not suffering from low estrogen, doesn’t mean more estrogen would have no effect on them? More estrogen could help decrease the risk. Therefore, isn’t B. an equally plausible answer as C (correct answer)?
Thank you.
