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deleted927298
Taking MCAT in June!!
Why does a net force of 0 not equal a net torque of 0? TBR says that there are component forces that act in an asymmetrical fashion about the system's center of mass, resulting in a net torque on the system.
But Torque=rF, so if torque exists, there has to be a force, thus it cannot be in translational equilibrium?
Also, if an object is not in rotational equilibrium, does it automatically mean that it is not in translational equilibrium because Torque=rF, there is a force acting on it, so it cannot be in translational equilibrium?
Thanks
Why does a net force of 0 not equal a net torque of 0? TBR says that there are component forces that act in an asymmetrical fashion about the system's center of mass, resulting in a net torque on the system.
But Torque=rF, so if torque exists, there has to be a force, thus it cannot be in translational equilibrium?
Also, if an object is not in rotational equilibrium, does it automatically mean that it is not in translational equilibrium because Torque=rF, there is a force acting on it, so it cannot be in translational equilibrium?
Thanks