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Okay so I am really confused about this vascular function curve concept. I don't understand how, when you have negative pressure in the RA, the veins collapse YET you still get the maximum venous return to the RA.
If the veins have collapsed, i.e. resistance has gone up infinitely, how are you pumping any blood through them.
Is it because the big veins (IVC, SVC) don't collapse and it's the venules that collapse? If this is true then your pressure gradient goes up, right? It also means that you have a greater flow through your veins (assuming the bigger veins did not collapse due to the negative pressue).
Someone please clarify this for me! Thanks
P.S. When we are talking about venous return curve, it is assumed that CO is zero, yes?
If the veins have collapsed, i.e. resistance has gone up infinitely, how are you pumping any blood through them.
Is it because the big veins (IVC, SVC) don't collapse and it's the venules that collapse? If this is true then your pressure gradient goes up, right? It also means that you have a greater flow through your veins (assuming the bigger veins did not collapse due to the negative pressue).
Someone please clarify this for me! Thanks
P.S. When we are talking about venous return curve, it is assumed that CO is zero, yes?