SDN Members don't see this ad. (About Ads) 1994 ITE Question 171 (k-type): A 36yo woman is scheduled for laparoscopy. She has a history of WPW syndrome and is currently taking no medications. Ten minutes after starting the laparoscopic procedure, she develops SVT with a HR of 220 bpm, BP of 90/60 mmHg, and wide QRS complexes. Appropriate therapy includes: 1) adenosine 2) propranolol 3) cardioversion 4) digoxin Answer: B Why wouldn't propranolol be acceptable? Is it due to its relatively longer onset of action compared to esmolol?