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25 year old female presents by way of her PMD. Only complaint was multiple joint pains. Her PMD reports she was febrile to 102, tachycardic to 140, tachypneic at 30, and hypoxic on room air. A chest x-ray obtained there demonstrated "wedge deformity concerning for pulmonary embolism."
She denies chest pain and shortness of breath.
She arrives on a non-rebreather with an O2 saturation of 100%. I take her off the non-rebreather to assess this reported hypoxia (which the PMD never documented a number) and decide to place her back on the mask when her SpO2 rapidly dropped to 62% with a good pleth.
Upon further questioning, I find that she has a history of sickle cell disease. She has no recent travel, no immobility, has no history of adenocarcinomatous cancer, and no familial history of DVT's or PE's. She does report that she is currently taking birth control pills. Her social history is unremarkable for tobacco, alcohol, and drug abuse.
So, what would be your initial impression with her presentation? She was sent in for a rule out PE! When I saw the transfer sheet from the PMD, I nearly fell in the floor. Had he never heard of acute chest syndrome? Perhaps she is having a pulmonary infarction secondary to that.
I explain to the patient our suspicions. The nurses get an IV and we administer a liter of normal saline followed by 1/2 normal saline. She is given 1 gram of ceftriaxone and 100 mg of doxycycline IV. The respiratory therapists start giving her albuterol treatments.
My attending, the hematology fellow, and I decide to send her for the PE protocol CT to see if she has an infarction. Also, radiology had official read her chest x-ray full of infiltrates as "pulmonary edema with bilateral small pleural effusions." Obviously they did not read my comment in the order about the patient being febrile and a sickler.
Her lab data comes back with a WBC count of 18 with 80% segs and 10% bands. Her hemoglobin is 5, with a baseline of 9-10. Labs drawn in her PMD's office -- just 5 hours prior (don't ask why he kept her so long) demonstrated a hemoglobin of 8. Her reticulocyte count is 15. Her troponin (sent because of the tachycardia and some rate related ST depression in the lateral leads) was slightly positive at 0.5 (normal <0.04 at my institution).
Obviously with her level of distress she's MICU bound. I call the MICU resident and the hematology fellow. The hematology fellow agrees that it sounds like acute chest and begins to arrange for an exchange transfusion. I get a Quinten from upstairs and go to place it, but the patient refuses. She doesn't want a transfusion or an exchange transfusion, despite me, the MICU resident, my attending, and the hematology fellow advising her of the mortality risk without it.
What happens when I call the PMD? He insists that it's a PE and that she be heparinized! I started to ask if he had ever heard of acute chest syndrome, but bit my tongue. Her CT was eventually done, and it demonstrated bilateral consolidation pneumoniae with small pleural effusions... no evidence of pulmonary embolism. While the patient was in the scanner, I thought of something and mentioned to the attending that doing the CT probably wasn't the best thing. The hyperosmolarity of the contrast could worsen sickling in her.
I guess I'm posting this for all the newbs out there. If you see a sickler with any evidence of chest pain, shortness of breath, fever, cough, hypoxia, or tachypnea, the first thought through your mind should be acute chest syndrome and not PE. ACS has a high mortality rate, and early antibiotics, aggressive oxygen and pulmonary toilet are necessary to prevent rapid progression. This is the only patient I've had with acute chest who was severe enough to need an exchange transfusion, and for the life of me I cannot reason why she wouldn't allow it.
She denies chest pain and shortness of breath.
She arrives on a non-rebreather with an O2 saturation of 100%. I take her off the non-rebreather to assess this reported hypoxia (which the PMD never documented a number) and decide to place her back on the mask when her SpO2 rapidly dropped to 62% with a good pleth.
Upon further questioning, I find that she has a history of sickle cell disease. She has no recent travel, no immobility, has no history of adenocarcinomatous cancer, and no familial history of DVT's or PE's. She does report that she is currently taking birth control pills. Her social history is unremarkable for tobacco, alcohol, and drug abuse.
So, what would be your initial impression with her presentation? She was sent in for a rule out PE! When I saw the transfer sheet from the PMD, I nearly fell in the floor. Had he never heard of acute chest syndrome? Perhaps she is having a pulmonary infarction secondary to that.
I explain to the patient our suspicions. The nurses get an IV and we administer a liter of normal saline followed by 1/2 normal saline. She is given 1 gram of ceftriaxone and 100 mg of doxycycline IV. The respiratory therapists start giving her albuterol treatments.
My attending, the hematology fellow, and I decide to send her for the PE protocol CT to see if she has an infarction. Also, radiology had official read her chest x-ray full of infiltrates as "pulmonary edema with bilateral small pleural effusions." Obviously they did not read my comment in the order about the patient being febrile and a sickler.
Her lab data comes back with a WBC count of 18 with 80% segs and 10% bands. Her hemoglobin is 5, with a baseline of 9-10. Labs drawn in her PMD's office -- just 5 hours prior (don't ask why he kept her so long) demonstrated a hemoglobin of 8. Her reticulocyte count is 15. Her troponin (sent because of the tachycardia and some rate related ST depression in the lateral leads) was slightly positive at 0.5 (normal <0.04 at my institution).
Obviously with her level of distress she's MICU bound. I call the MICU resident and the hematology fellow. The hematology fellow agrees that it sounds like acute chest and begins to arrange for an exchange transfusion. I get a Quinten from upstairs and go to place it, but the patient refuses. She doesn't want a transfusion or an exchange transfusion, despite me, the MICU resident, my attending, and the hematology fellow advising her of the mortality risk without it.
What happens when I call the PMD? He insists that it's a PE and that she be heparinized! I started to ask if he had ever heard of acute chest syndrome, but bit my tongue. Her CT was eventually done, and it demonstrated bilateral consolidation pneumoniae with small pleural effusions... no evidence of pulmonary embolism. While the patient was in the scanner, I thought of something and mentioned to the attending that doing the CT probably wasn't the best thing. The hyperosmolarity of the contrast could worsen sickling in her.
I guess I'm posting this for all the newbs out there. If you see a sickler with any evidence of chest pain, shortness of breath, fever, cough, hypoxia, or tachypnea, the first thought through your mind should be acute chest syndrome and not PE. ACS has a high mortality rate, and early antibiotics, aggressive oxygen and pulmonary toilet are necessary to prevent rapid progression. This is the only patient I've had with acute chest who was severe enough to need an exchange transfusion, and for the life of me I cannot reason why she wouldn't allow it.