Math Formula Sheet Complier

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drusier

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lets use this thread to list some formulas that anyone might want to be able to recall during the tutorial.
Sin=O/H Cos=A/H Tan=O/H
Csc=H/O etc

Area Circle = (pi)r^2
Circum Circle = (pi)D

Pascals triangle up to ~ row 9

what can you guys add? keep it on topic plz

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I think some trig identities are definitely worth knowing...

sin^2(x) + cos^2(x) = 1
tan^2(x) + 1 = sec^2(x)
cot^2(x) + 1 = csc^2(x)
 
PYTHAGOREAN RELATIONSHIP
a^2 + b^2 = c^2; a and b are legs and c the hypotenuse of a right triangle.

AREA of a:
square Area = side^2
rectangle Area = length x width
parallelogram Area = base x height
triangle Area = 1/2 x base x height
trapezoid Area = 1/2 x (base1 x base2) x height
circle Area = pi x radius^2; Where pi is approximately equal to 3.14

PERIMETER of a:
square Perimeter = 4 x side
rectangle Perimeter = 2 x length + 2 x width
triangle Perimeter = side1 + side2 + side3

CIRCUMFERENCE of a:
circle Circumference = pi x diameter

PROBABILITY
Probability starts with logic. There is a set of N elements. We can define a sub-set of n favorable elements, where n is less than or equal to N. Probability is defined as the rapport of the favorable cases over total cases, or calculated as:
p = n/N

:)
 
do you think just those simple trig functions will be enough.

another one arc length(s) = radius* theta

distance(ab) sqrt{(x2-x1)^2+(y2-y1)^2)}

for measuring chords of a circle. The overall ratios are the same ex.
chords AB and CD intersect at E
AE=4
AB=5
CE=2
EB=1
ED=?
AEXEB=CEXED
4x1=2x2
ED=2

Can some1 please list the special triangles and their degrees?
 
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I think those are the special triangles:

(3,4,5) (5, 12, 13) (7, 24, 25) (8, 15, 17) (9, 40,41)


I don't have the kaplan book with me, so if those are wrong please correct me. (oh, I'm not sure what their degrees are. I don't think it was listed in the Kaplan book. But i think if you are given one or two angles then you can use the trig. identity to figure out the third one)
 
Simple interest:

I=PRT

I=interest
P=principle amount
R=rate
T=time


Compound Interest

S = P(1 + I)^n

S=future value
P=principle amount
I= periodic rate of interest (annual rate divided by the number of periods per year)
n=number of periods
 
sherry225 said:
I think those are the special triangles:

(3,4,5) (5, 12, 13) (7, 24, 25) (8, 15, 17) (9, 40,41)


I don't have the kaplan book with me, so if those are wrong please correct me. (oh, I'm not sure what their degrees are. I don't think it was listed in the Kaplan book. But i think if you are given one or two angles then you can use the trig. identity to figure out the third one)
given 2,3,7 as length of sides then how would you find the angles


TS #27
 
mobius said:
given 2,3,7 as length of sides then how would you find the angles


TS #27

For non-right triangles, use the following identity:

Sin (A)......Sin (B).....Sin (C)
---------=----------=----------
....a...............b.............c

where A, B, and C are the angles, and a, b, and c are the lengths
 
ok, how does that get me the answer... sorry to sound like an idiot
 
mobius said:
ok, how does that get me the answer... sorry to sound like an idiot

Sorry, that was my mistake. You also need to know the law of cosines to answer that problem. What I gave above was the law of sines.

Law of cos:

a^2 = b^2 + c^2 - 2*b*c*Cos (A)
b^2 = a^2 + c^2 - 2*a*c*Cos (B)
c^2 = a^2 + b^2 - 2*a*b*Cos (C)


However, I think you may have made a mistake also. You can't have a triangle with side lengths of 2,3,7.
 
d= sqrt [(x1-x2)^2 + (y1-y2)^2)]

for a line: y= mx + b, lines that are perpendicular have slope = -1/m
 
for the guys (and gals) that just finished would u add anything else? btw im taking mine on the 13th....
 
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and degrees to radians, of course

also cos(-x) = cos(x) and sin(-x) = -sin(x)

it helps if you're familiar with their graphs, too.
 
bump....did any1 have standard d on their test....wut is the formula for it. thanks
 
Below showed up on my test

C = 5/9(F-32)
1 Gal = 4 Quarts
1 Quart = 2 Pints
1 Pint = 16 Fluid Ounces
1lb = 16 ounces

Variance = [Sum of (Xi - Xave)^2]/n
Std Deviation = Sqrt of Variance

tan(x) = -tan(180-x)

Right Triangle: a^2 + b^2 = c^2 (two questions in different forms)

Probability: Desired/Total Outcomes

sin^2 + cos^2 = 1

cscx = 1/sinx

Area = 1/2 Height*Base

C = 2*pi*R

Sin(30) = 1/2

Rectangle Perimeter = 2(L+W)
Rectangle Area = L*W

tan, sin, distance formulas

If I remember more, I'll add later.
 
This seems like a great thread to resurrect - Ill add to the list:

Area of ellipse = pi(ab)
 
Permutation: nPr = n!/(n-r)!

n = the total number of elements in the set
r = the number of elements chosen from the set

Permutations take into account the order of the elements. Thus, {1, 2, 3, 4} is different than {2, 1, 3, 4} and so forth.

Example: You need to randomly draw 5 contest winners from a box containing 15 names. The first winner gets the largest prize with each successive winner receiving a smaller prize amount. How many ways can you select the 5 winners?

Answer: n = 15, r = 5.

15!/(15-5)! = 15!/10! = 15*14*13*12*11 = 360,360 ways.

The prize levels are different. If entry numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 are drawn, the order in which they are drawn matters. The first one to be drawn gets the biggest prize and so forth.

Theory: When you need to take n objects and put them into some arrangement, you can select any of the n objects to go into the first spot. You then have n-1 remaining objects to place into the second spot. You have n-2 remaining objects to place into the third spot, and so on. Overall, there are n*(n-1)*(n-2)*...*2*1 ways to order these objects. What if you only need r of these n objects in your arrangement? There are still n objects to select for the first spot. There are still n-1 objects for the second spot. But after you select the r-th object, you are done. So you only want to continue until you have n-r objects left. You do NOT want to arrange the n-r object because you have already arranged r objects. You want to stop after the n-r+1 object (the object right before the n-r object). How is this written?

Normally you have n*(n-1)*(n-2)*...*2*1. Now you only want n*(n-1)*(n-2)*...*(n-r+1). This is the same as n!/(n-r)! (why?)




Combination: nCr = n!/(n-r)!r!

n = the total number of elements in the set
r = the number of elements chosen from the set

Combinations do not take into account the order of the elements. Thus, {1, 2, 3, 4} is the same as {2, 1, 3, 4} and so forth.

Example: You need to randomly draw 5 contest winners from a box containing 15 names. Each winner gets the same prize amount. How many ways can you select the 5 winners?

Answer: n = 15, r = 5.

15!/(15-5)!5! = 15!/10!5! = (15*14*13*12*11)/(5*4*3*2*1) = 3,003 ways.

There are fewer ways to choose the winners because the order the winners are drawn doesn't matter anymore. Each winner gets the same prize, so whether you are drawn first or fifth it does not matter.

Theory: Same as a permutation with one extra value. We still only need to select the first r objects of the n total objects. But since order doesn't matter anymore, we need to only consider unique selections of the objects. In other words, we have to account for duplicate selections of the 5 object subgroups (from our example).

Of the original 360,360 possible arrangements, how many of them have some ordering of the elements {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}? Well there's that one. There's {1, 2, 3, 5, 4}. There's {2, 5, 4, 1, 3}. There's a lot. There are 120 ways you can take 5 elements (5! = 120) and arrange them. Of those 120 ways, we only need to consider 1 of them. It doesn't matter which one. For simplicity's sake we'll just go with the arrangement that orders them least to greatest: {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}. There are 120 ways we could select those 5 winners but we only need to consider 1 of them since they all win the same prize. Thus, we take our original equation:

n!/(n-r)!

And divide that by the number of ways we can arrange the r elements that we have chosen: r!

We get n!/(n-r)!r!




Now people can stop asking about the destroyer question #s 20 and 27.
 
Permutation: nPr = n!/(n-r)!

n = the total number of elements in the set
r = the number of elements chosen from the set

Permutations take into account the order of the elements. Thus, {1, 2, 3, 4} is different than {2, 1, 3, 4} and so forth.

Example: You need to randomly draw 5 contest winners from a box containing 15 names. The first winner gets the largest prize with each successive winner receiving a smaller prize amount. How many ways can you select the 5 winners?

Answer: n = 15, r = 5.

15!/(15-5)! = 15!/10! = 15*14*13*12*11 = 360,360 ways.

The prize levels are different. If entry numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 are drawn, the order in which they are drawn matters. The first one to be drawn gets the biggest prize and so forth.

Theory: When you need to take n objects and put them into some arrangement, you can select any of the n objects to go into the first spot. You then have n-1 remaining objects to place into the second spot. You have n-2 remaining objects to place into the third spot, and so on. Overall, there are n*(n-1)*(n-2)*...*2*1 ways to order these objects. What if you only need r of these n objects in your arrangement? There are still n objects to select for the first spot. There are still n-1 objects for the second spot. But after you select the r-th object, you are done. So you only want to continue until you have n-r objects left. You do NOT want to arrange the n-r object because you have already arranged r objects. You want to stop after the n-r+1 object (the object right before the n-r object). How is this written?

Normally you have n*(n-1)*(n-2)*...*2*1. Now you only want n*(n-1)*(n-2)*...*(n-r+1). This is the same as n!/(n-r)! (why?)




Combination: nCr = n!/(n-r)!r!

n = the total number of elements in the set
r = the number of elements chosen from the set

Combinations do not take into account the order of the elements. Thus, {1, 2, 3, 4} is the same as {2, 1, 3, 4} and so forth.

Example: You need to randomly draw 5 contest winners from a box containing 15 names. Each winner gets the same prize amount. How many ways can you select the 5 winners?

Answer: n = 15, r = 5.

15!/(15-5)!5! = 15!/10!5! = (15*14*13*12*11)/(5*4*3*2*1) = 3,003 ways.

There are fewer ways to choose the winners because the order the winners are drawn doesn't matter anymore. Each winner gets the same prize, so whether you are drawn first or fifth it does not matter.

Theory: Same as a permutation with one extra value. We still only need to select the first r objects of the n total objects. But since order doesn't matter anymore, we need to only consider unique selections of the objects. In other words, we have to account for duplicate selections of the 5 object subgroups (from our example).

Of the original 360,360 possible arrangements, how many of them have some ordering of the elements {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}? Well there's that one. There's {1, 2, 3, 5, 4}. There's {2, 5, 4, 1, 3}. There's a lot. There are 120 ways you can take 5 elements (5! = 120) and arrange them. Of those 120 ways, we only need to consider 1 of them. It doesn't matter which one. For simplicity's sake we'll just go with the arrangement that orders them least to greatest: {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}. There are 120 ways we could select those 5 winners but we only need to consider 1 of them since they all win the same prize. Thus, we take our original equation:

n!/(n-r)!

And divide that by the number of ways we can arrange the r elements that we have chosen: r!

We get n!/(n-r)!r!




Now people can stop asking about the destroyer question #s 20 and 27.

Nice. I'll refer those many questions to this post now.
 
Permutation: nPr = n!/(n-r)!

n = the total number of elements in the set
r = the number of elements chosen from the set

Permutations take into account the order of the elements. Thus, {1, 2, 3, 4} is different than {2, 1, 3, 4} and so forth.

Example: You need to randomly draw 5 contest winners from a box containing 15 names. The first winner gets the largest prize with each successive winner receiving a smaller prize amount. How many ways can you select the 5 winners?

Answer: n = 15, r = 5.

15!/(15-5)! = 15!/10! = 15*14*13*12*11 = 360,360 ways.

The prize levels are different. If entry numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 are drawn, the order in which they are drawn matters. The first one to be drawn gets the biggest prize and so forth.

Theory: When you need to take n objects and put them into some arrangement, you can select any of the n objects to go into the first spot. You then have n-1 remaining objects to place into the second spot. You have n-2 remaining objects to place into the third spot, and so on. Overall, there are n*(n-1)*(n-2)*...*2*1 ways to order these objects. What if you only need r of these n objects in your arrangement? There are still n objects to select for the first spot. There are still n-1 objects for the second spot. But after you select the r-th object, you are done. So you only want to continue until you have n-r objects left. You do NOT want to arrange the n-r object because you have already arranged r objects. You want to stop after the n-r+1 object (the object right before the n-r object). How is this written?

Normally you have n*(n-1)*(n-2)*...*2*1. Now you only want n*(n-1)*(n-2)*...*(n-r+1). This is the same as n!/(n-r)! (why?)




Combination: nCr = n!/(n-r)!r!

n = the total number of elements in the set
r = the number of elements chosen from the set

Combinations do not take into account the order of the elements. Thus, {1, 2, 3, 4} is the same as {2, 1, 3, 4} and so forth.

Example: You need to randomly draw 5 contest winners from a box containing 15 names. Each winner gets the same prize amount. How many ways can you select the 5 winners?

Answer: n = 15, r = 5.

15!/(15-5)!5! = 15!/10!5! = (15*14*13*12*11)/(5*4*3*2*1) = 3,003 ways.

There are fewer ways to choose the winners because the order the winners are drawn doesn't matter anymore. Each winner gets the same prize, so whether you are drawn first or fifth it does not matter.

Theory: Same as a permutation with one extra value. We still only need to select the first r objects of the n total objects. But since order doesn't matter anymore, we need to only consider unique selections of the objects. In other words, we have to account for duplicate selections of the 5 object subgroups (from our example).

Of the original 360,360 possible arrangements, how many of them have some ordering of the elements {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}? Well there's that one. There's {1, 2, 3, 5, 4}. There's {2, 5, 4, 1, 3}. There's a lot. There are 120 ways you can take 5 elements (5! = 120) and arrange them. Of those 120 ways, we only need to consider 1 of them. It doesn't matter which one. For simplicity's sake we'll just go with the arrangement that orders them least to greatest: {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}. There are 120 ways we could select those 5 winners but we only need to consider 1 of them since they all win the same prize. Thus, we take our original equation:

n!/(n-r)!

And divide that by the number of ways we can arrange the r elements that we have chosen: r!

We get n!/(n-r)!r!




Now people can stop asking about the destroyer question #s 20 and 27.
this is exactly what i need to understand and memorize the formulas, because i miss the questions pertaining to this topic...i think i understand it but then if you give me a problem bam! i get it wrong:rolleyes:
 
damn streetwolf i just noticed you are all over these threads....you know your stuff.....i just figured out why, its because your a fellow BRANDEIS UNIVERSITY student......i guess all the weeding out at our school really does put out la creme de la creme
 
damn streetwolf i just noticed you are all over these threads....you know your stuff.....i just figured out why, its because your a fellow BRANDEIS UNIVERSITY student......i guess all the weeding out at our school really does put out la creme de la creme

ha...my sis graduated from there a few years back. i hope not too many of you brandeis kids are gonna be taking the dat this cycle because you will undoubtedly set the curve. grrrrrrrr!
 
Simple interest:

I=PRT

I=interest
P=principle amount
R=rate
T=time


Compound Interest

S = P(1 + I)^n

S=future value
P=principle amount
I= periodic rate of interest (annual rate divided by the number of periods per year)
n=number of periods

are you sure about the compound interest formula cuz i have seen it in other places written like this
S=P(1+I)^nt

where t=time

anyone plz correct me if I am wrong
 
CIRCLE

Area of a Sector = (n/360)pie r^2

Circumfrence of a Sector = (n/360)pie D
 
I would add my fast method of comparing two fractions, and finding out which one has a bigger value. You can do it by getting a common denominator, but that might take a long time.

Let's say we want to compare a/b with d/c . Which one is bigger?
Here is the fast method. Multiply the denominator of one fraction by the numerator of the other fraction, and put the result on top of the fraction that had its numerator multiplyed. This number will be representative of that fraction's value. multiply c by a, and put the result on top of the fraction that has a . Also multiply b by d, and put that number on top of the fraction that has d. [you basically put the result on top of the fraction that had its numerator multiplied. now compare a*c and b*d values. the bigger one declares its fraction to be bigger.
here is an example:

which one is bigger 11/14 or 23/29 ?

so we multiply 29 by 11 = 319. This number is representative of 11/14
then multiply 14 by 23 = 322. This number is representative of 23/29.

322 is larger than 319, so this means 23/29 will be larger than 11/14.
I hope this will be helpful for some folks who get these type of questions on their QR.
 
More Pythagorean Triples:

The 3-4-5 group: (3-4-5), (6-8-10), (9-12-15), (12-16-20), (15-20-25)
The 5-12-13 group: (5-12-13), (10-24-26)
The rest: (8-15-17), (7-24-25), (20-21-29), (9-40-41), (11-60-61)

The hypotenuse is always listed third in the group.
 
this is a great thread, and just what i was looking for. I am looking for important conversions for math. There are a few on this thread but are there any more we should know. I am looking to see one between inches and cm or m. I saw that 1in=2.54cm. I dont know if that is correct and if we should use a more rounded off version for the DAT.

ANy suggestions and any more conversions??:)
 
Special triangles:
30-60-90, side lengths x, x√3, hypotenuse 2x
45-45-90, side lengths x, x, hypotenuse x √2
60-60-60, side lengths x, x, x, bisects into 30-60-90 triangles.

Area of part of a circle = ratio of inside angle to 360 or 2π = (x/360)πr^2
 
I just wanna say... I LOVE YOU GUYS!*tear* haha! This thread is what I've been waiting for. This is awesome... This thread along with the other thread (sample problems: http://forums.studentdoctor.net/showthread.php?t=646924) we can kill the QR section. for the other thread post as many problems that either seem common or really tough to grasp. i.e trig:mad:

wonderful...thanks again ya'll!!!
 
Combination formula: I don't know if anyone said this one, I have seen on it on a couple of practice test!

a x b/ a+b
 
so all you guys memorized those equations, or plan on doing so?? i better get to work because i didnt know all of them...i have my dat on oct. 10th and i am tripping out about math.


off topic but: (i know this is math thread, but no one responds to my posts...so...)

thus far i have not done much PAT other than kaplan problems, but i am going to get crack DAT PAT -- i still have enough time right?

also i havnt even practiced RCT...i was thinking of the "search and destroy" method...any thoughts.
 
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