Anyone else a little frustrated with how mental illness is portrayed after mass shootings like this? In the wake of the shooting in Las Vegas it became known that the shooter was an older, white male from Nevada with no obvious radical political or religious associations. In searching for a reason how or why this person could commit such an awful tragedy it seems the general consensus the public and media have come to is to put the blame on "mental illness". I'm not saying this guy did or did not have a mental illness, and some would probably argue that committing a mass murder is basically diagnostic of some sort of mental illness (ASPD?). However, I feel like the tone people are taking against "mental illness" is absolutely destructive. There is already a significant stigma against mental illness, now people will assume everyone with any mental illness is liable to commit mass murder. The Jimmy Kimmel video going around the web () takes what I felt was a very harsh tone against everyone with mental illness. The fraction of people with any mental illness who have a tendency to be violent is minuscule. It actually reminds me a lot of the rhetoric against muslims after terrorist attacks. This talk of mental illness comes up after every mass shooting committed by a white person and I just don't know how to be more productive or accurate in where to place blame and suggest solutions.
Also, if laws were enacted as suggested in the Jimmy Kimmel video to ban gun sales to people with mental illness, would the responsibility be on psychiatrists to decide who can and can't get guns? Jimmy says to ban gun sales to everyone with mental illness but that is ridiculous. Someone with GAD or MDD should probably be able to buy a gun. Would certain diagnoses automatically prohibit a person from buying guns, or would a history of violence or certain risk factors be needed? Do you think a law like this could ever work out in a productive, fair manner? I haven't heard anything about the most recent shooter being diagnosed with any mental illness so I really don't understand where this is coming from.
I personally think there is a better balance point in improving our culture way, way before having to worry about this.Have to ask, how much of the individualization will be given up if a population is socially constructed and controlled not to exhibit such mannerisms/behaviors?

I personally think there is a better balance point in improving our culture way, way before having to worry about this.
But, the rest of the U.S. doesn't agree with me though and is ok with they way things are so far. Wring hands, buy more guns, ignore problems, repeat in a month.![]()
It took me far too long to realize that was an Onion article.
To call it mental illness without any prior diagnosis or noted signs and symptoms is absurd. For all we know his decisions were perfectly within whatever belief structure he had constructed for himself, like any terrorist (whom we do not classify as mentally ill). Maybe he just wanted to be famous, and he figured this was the best way to go about it before he died of old age. That's twisted, but not necessarily a thought process that required mental illness. For all we know he was an anti-gun crusader that figured he'd make a grand statement about firearms by unleashing rounds in the very sort of people that support liberal gun regulations, he could have had any number of motives that don't breach the point of mental illness.
This guy has some interesting ideas on the topic:
I think most of these shootings are "mental illness" insofar as ASPD and related PD are "mental illness."
The empirical literature indicates that the mentally ill are more likely to be victims of crimes than commit crimes. The only disorders associated with an increased odds ratio of violence include alcohol use, marijuana use disorder, antisocial personality disorder, and delusional disorder. Which leads to minimal evidence that because B, A. .
I've heard this statement thrown around a lot. Anyone have the paper it's from handy? Would love to have it on-hand for the future.
Just want to add that this guy apparently set up cameras outside of his room so he could see police coming in..that level of organization rules out him being floridly psychotic or manic IMHO
From a lot of papers, many cite the MacArthur Risk Assessment Study as an early work in the area.
Violence and mental illness: an overview
Mental illness and violence - Harvard Health
Violence and Mental Illness
Deranged and Dangerous: When Do the Emotionally Disturbed Resort to Violence?
Those will be a good starting point, if you want further reading you can citation track from these.
Either way, he was at least nominally given a psychiatric diagnosis in order to have a prescription for a Schedule IV psychiatric drug.
1. How does a doctor prescribe a medicine without indicating a disease? I thought they had to at least in name.1. No it doesn't.
2. Withdrawal syndromes make people sick and agitated. Last time I check, stockpiling weapons and meticulous planning of mass murder are not induced by bezo withdrawal.
2. The psychiatricizing of bad behavior is a huge problem
Given a diagnosis and having a disorder of a given diagnosis are two very different things. I have many patients with a psychiatric disorder listed in their problem list who definitely do not meet criteria for said disorder and are prescribed psychotropics.
Yes, that's why I said nominally. The person prescribing it has some justification in their own mind about why it's appropriate to dole out scheduled substances on a long-term basis. And they write something down--some mental illness. But even if that's just in name only to them, what type of "distress," for lack of better word, would they be giving it for? It's certainly not for constipation. It's something behavioral. It doesn't mean they're right in doing it, but that's their thinking at least.
1. How does a doctor prescribe a medicine without indicating a disease? I thought they had to at least in name.
Valium is also given for muscle spasms, pain, and certain sleep issues. So it's not definitely a psychiatric diagnosis.Yes, that's why I said nominally. The person prescribing it has some justification in their own mind about why it's appropriate to dole out scheduled substances on a long-term basis. And they write something down--some mental illness. But even if that's just in name only to them, what type of "distress," for lack of better word, would they be giving it for? It's certainly not for constipation. It's something behavioral. It doesn't mean they're right in doing it, but that's their thinking at least.
I was trying to say that these things seem to be more "Axis 2" than "Axis 1." But I'd imagine that most laypeople think of "Axis 1" disorders when they use the phrase "mental illness." I did not mean to imply that shooting a bunch of people earns you a diagnosis of ASPD.Why?
ASPD is not, and has nothing to do with a single act of commission, even if said act is grotesque, evil and makes no sense to anyone but him.
To further address the OP, where do we draw the line for "mentally ill" if we're restricting gun ownership for the "mentally ill?" That's what Jimmy and so many other people are calling for. Now we're just giving Joe Bob in Macon, GA another reason to resist going to see a psychiatrist for his run-of-the-mill Major Depression.
James holmes?Just want to add that this guy apparently set up cameras outside of his room so he could see police coming in..that level of organization rules out him being floridly psychotic or manic IMHO
Well, he was on 10 mg Valium per day, reduced from his previous prescription of 20 mg per day. Steep drop. Could withdrawal have been a factor (obviously among many)?
Either way, he was at least nominally given a psychiatric diagnosis in order to have a prescription for a Schedule IV psychiatric drug.
I expected benzos (they are the most popular psychiatric drug by prescription). The dose is more modest than I would have expected.
It is somewhat upsetting how frequently I have this conversation in our psych ED with country boys:
Me: I would like you to sign into the hospital because you have started drinking thirty beers a day, are giving away your possessions to your friends, sleep a couple hours a night, keep texting your family about how things will be better when you are gone, and are telling me when I ask about safety planning that you have access to any tool you would need to kill yourself.
Country boy: Naw, doc, I'm good.
Me: if you are involuntarily hospitalized in the state of Pennsylvania you will basically never be allowed to own guns again
Country boy: where's the d*mn form, do you have a pen.
Seriously though I am enormously pro-gun control but in a society where gun ownership is common and a cultural touchstone for many people I want to punch Jimmy Kimmel for suggesting that a psychiatric diagnosis should mean you don't have rights.
Is that true?
So if you are involuntarily committed in PA, you lose the right to own firearms. There is in principle an appeal process but it takes many years, has no guarantee of success, and hardly anyone does this.
Ah, committed, not hospitalized.
True that. My wife was asking me about the shooter yesterday along the lines of "what makes someone do that?" When I told her I had no idea, she said I should know something since I am a psychologist. 😕This is not an argument that psychiatrists are ever going to win, because to the average guy, shooting up a bunch of people you don't know for no apparent reason sounds like a crazy thing to do.
Is that true?
So if you are involuntarily committed in PA, you lose the right to own firearms. There is in principle an appeal process but it takes many years, has no guarantee of success, and hardly anyone does this.
Ahhhh, one of my favorites.
This is a FEDERAL LAW. Not a state law. It was created in 1968 after a certain someone bought a rifle through the mail and shot a certain popular politician. This made it illegal for anyone who had been involuntarily committed to a psychiatric hospital and/or anyone addicted to a substance to own a firearm. In 1993, the brady bill created a reporting system called NICS. Which received other funding in 2007. HIPPA doesn't prevent this disclosure, although the GAO and HHS have indicated a provider can only report the name of the individual, and not clinical data including dx.
How many people are taught this? Pretty much none. I would imagine that there is going to be a legal storm when some attorney tries to place partial blames on a clinician for NOT reporting an assailant to NICS. Think about how many patients with substance abuse are sitting in your medical records. Because that started to happen after the viriginia tech shooting. Only thing that saved everyone was a lack of clarity in the law.
State laws absolutely vary. Nics, the Bradley bill, etc are federal laws. Because... you know they didn't really like it when someone killed Kennedy. And they said it was unamerican to not support this the bill.
As you are aware, our constitution says that federal law supersedes state law. Since gun sales are federally regulated, I doubt anyone prohibited on nics is gonna be successful in a state's argument.
There are some pretty interesting things happening with states refusing to report to nics. Ssdi and the va have argued that they shouldn't have to report people who have payees.
My bet is on someone looking for a payout is gonna sue a provider under the third party duty case law when they can.
Absolutely their right to seek legal restoration of their constitutional rights. Not my job to decide if they should have them or not, and I'm thankful that it's not. I do know that the law says I'm supposed to report, and that there have been inroads to making me liable if I don't.
This is not an argument that psychiatrists are ever going to win, because to the average guy, shooting up a bunch of people you don't know for no apparent reason sounds like a crazy thing to do.
Though calling out lazy journalism like this would help a bit.
Report: Suspected Las Vegas gunman was prescribed medication that can cause aggression