Would this a binomial probablity because probability of sucess equals 1-probability oif failure. The reason is because there is only two choices; rolling a 4 or not rolling a 4:
Since you have 1/6 chances of throwing 4 and 5/6 chance of throwing anything but 4.
Since, you want 2 4s in 5 attenpts, you do the following:
(1/6*1/6*5/6*5/6*5/6 )*10 (I got 10 from 5C2)
*plz correct me if I am wrong