Hey everyone,
I had a question about AAMC 8 Physics. The question is:
(19) When designing his experiment, Galileo could have allowed spheres to drop from a height of 10 m rather than using the 10-m inclined plane described in the passage. The main advantage to using the inclined plane is that on the inclined plane the:
A) Final velocity of a sphere is smaller
B) Final velocity of a sphere is larger
C) Spheres take longer to reach the bottom
D) Spheres take less time to reach the bottom
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The correct answer is C. I got it right, but not for the right reasons- I actually thought that the velocity of the rolling ball would be smaller at the end of the inclined plane than if you had dropped it vertically, and thus would take longer and be easier to measure.
My reasoning is: a 10-m inclined plane, unless you tilt it vertically, will never have a height of 10 m. Therefore, according to mgh = (1/2)mv2, the final velocity for the inclined plane will always be smaller because its height can never reach the magnitude that the vertical 10 m drop will have. However, AAMC is saying that the final velocity between the drop and the inclined plane is the same. What's wrong with my reasoning?
Thanks in advance! I appreciate any help I could get.
I had a question about AAMC 8 Physics. The question is:
(19) When designing his experiment, Galileo could have allowed spheres to drop from a height of 10 m rather than using the 10-m inclined plane described in the passage. The main advantage to using the inclined plane is that on the inclined plane the:
A) Final velocity of a sphere is smaller
B) Final velocity of a sphere is larger
C) Spheres take longer to reach the bottom
D) Spheres take less time to reach the bottom
---------------------------------------------------------------------
The correct answer is C. I got it right, but not for the right reasons- I actually thought that the velocity of the rolling ball would be smaller at the end of the inclined plane than if you had dropped it vertically, and thus would take longer and be easier to measure.
My reasoning is: a 10-m inclined plane, unless you tilt it vertically, will never have a height of 10 m. Therefore, according to mgh = (1/2)mv2, the final velocity for the inclined plane will always be smaller because its height can never reach the magnitude that the vertical 10 m drop will have. However, AAMC is saying that the final velocity between the drop and the inclined plane is the same. What's wrong with my reasoning?
Thanks in advance! I appreciate any help I could get.