Since a pulley is involved, shouldn't the work done be 1/2 of the original force, and thus 100J?
View attachment 201849
Intuitively, you know that the amount of work to do something is the same regardless of
how you do it.
Work = ∆KE + ∆PE
For example, the work, the change in KE + change PE, of a skier starting from rest on top of the mountain until she skis (w/o friction) to the bottom is the same as dropping that skier off a building of an equal height as the mountain. The final velocity is the same in both cases. In the first, her acceleration is smaller but it occurs over a longer distance (the length of the slope) rather than straight downwards. And, since she reaches the bottom, the change in PE is the same, too.
In this case, the work done is the same kind of thing. This time, KE is 0 at both the start and end (bring a box up 5m, it's initial and final velocities are both 0), so the only thing that matters is change in PE.
PEo = mass * g * height (= 0) = 0 J
PE f= mass * g * height = 4 * 5 * 10 = 200 J
The change in PE = 200 J regardless of how you lift the thing upward. Pulley or no pulley. The work done, then, is 200J.
As a last point, remember the question is asking about
work and not about the
force needed. Mechanical advantage means that the
force you have to exert is less, but, since the work done is the same, the
distance you have to apply that force is longer--much like in the skier example.