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Barr body = inactive X chromosome
Cliffs says that most of the genes in inactive X chromosome are not expressed nor do they interact in a dominant/recessive or codominant manner with their respective alleles on the x chromosome that is expressed.
So basically this means most of the time only 1 X controls all the gene activity in females right? Isn't this just like male having 1 X? So for example when male has only 1 recessive allele for hemophilia, his phenotype is hemophillic because there is no other X. So shouldn't this be true for females as well? Coz even if other X (inactive) had dominant trait of hemophilia, it would still not express it since that X is inactive. Then why doesnt female with Xh on active chromosome and XH on inactive chromosome called hemophillic?
I am missing something here, can't figure out what though 😕
Thanks!
Cliffs says that most of the genes in inactive X chromosome are not expressed nor do they interact in a dominant/recessive or codominant manner with their respective alleles on the x chromosome that is expressed.
So basically this means most of the time only 1 X controls all the gene activity in females right? Isn't this just like male having 1 X? So for example when male has only 1 recessive allele for hemophilia, his phenotype is hemophillic because there is no other X. So shouldn't this be true for females as well? Coz even if other X (inactive) had dominant trait of hemophilia, it would still not express it since that X is inactive. Then why doesnt female with Xh on active chromosome and XH on inactive chromosome called hemophillic?
I am missing something here, can't figure out what though 😕
Thanks!