so this is more of a pedantic question..
the question asks, "what is the likelihood of the couple's son will have have hemophilia?"
so the question is already assuming the child is a male, thus there should be no need to * 1/2 to account for the probability of gender.
however, the solution does * 1/2 to account for P of gender.
I think it would make more sense to do the latter if the question stated, " what is the likelihood the couple have A son that has hemophilia?"
thoughts?
the question asks, "what is the likelihood of the couple's son will have have hemophilia?"
so the question is already assuming the child is a male, thus there should be no need to * 1/2 to account for the probability of gender.
however, the solution does * 1/2 to account for P of gender.
I think it would make more sense to do the latter if the question stated, " what is the likelihood the couple have A son that has hemophilia?"
thoughts?