Biochemistry question

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medoboy2

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can any one solve these:

01. In galactosemia, accumulation of which compound in the lens of the eye causes cataract formation?
A. UDP-glucose
B. UDP-galactose
C. Galactose 1-phosphate
D. Galacturonic acid
E. Galactitol
02. Inadequate intestinal absorption of vitamin B12 might lead to a deficiency in which enzyme in fatty acid oxidation?
A. methylmalonyl-CoA mutase
B. L-3-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase
C. Thiolase
D. enoyl-CoA hydratase
E. acyl-CoA dehydrogenase

03. All of the following are characteristic of cystic fibrosis EXCEPT:
A. increased clogging of pancreatic ducts.
B. decreased fertility in males.
C. decreased NaCl levels in sweat.
D. increased viscosity of lung airway secretions.
E. decreased intestinal secretion.

04. Patients with hereditary orotic aciduria are treated by feeding them uridine, which is converted to UMP and other missing pyrimidine nucleotides. This also corrects the over production of orotic acid because:
A. the de novo pathway is no longer blocked.
B. carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II is inhibited.
C. dihydroorotate can not be further oxidized.
D. the blockage occurs after the committed step.
E. purine nucleotide synthesis effectively competes for excess PRPP.

05. The conjugation of bilirubin
A. is impaired in Dubin-Johnson syndrome
B. occurs in the Kupfer cells of the liver
C. is inhibited by rifampicin
D. is catalysed by a glucuronyl transferase
E. is increased by valproate

06. Following conditions are associated with hyperuriaemia EXCEPT:
A. Down's syndrome
B. Starvation
C. Xanthinuria
D. Psoriasis
E. type I glycogen storage disease (Von Gierke's disease)

07. A 5-month-old male presents with seizures and delayed development. Upon newborn screen he was detected to have hyperphenylalaninemia and is on a phenylalanine-restricted, synthetic diet. The most likely cause for his current symptoms is a
A. defect in tetrahydrofolate reductase.
B. defect in dihydropteridine reductase.
C. tyrosine deficiency.
D. tryptophan deficiency.
E. defect in phenylalanine hydroxylase.

08. A serum sodium value of 115 mEq/liter may be associated with all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
A. Inappropriate antidiuretic hormone
B. Liver disease
C. Addison's disease
D. Water deprivation

09. The discontinuous nature of DNA synthesis:
A. Leads to the formation of Okazaki fragments
B. Means that both 3'->5' and 5'->3' polymerases are used
C. Requires that DNA polymerase III dissociate frequently from the template on both strands of a replication fork
D. Is necessary because synthesis is bidirectional from the initiation point
E. Means that synthesis occurs on the second strand of DNA only after synthesis of the first strand is completed

10. The deformation of an erythrocyte that occurs as this cell flows through a capillary is due to
A. a calcium-mediated phase transition of specific phospholipid classes
B. extensive changes in phospholipid asymmetry in the membrane
C. interactions between integral and peripheral membrane proteins
D. a loss of proteins that are anchored to the membrane by lipids

11. The rationale for treating pre-term neonates with surfactant preparations is to
A. stimulate synthesis of dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine.
B. increase secretion of tubular myelin.
C. accelerate the phagocytic activity of alveolar macrophages.
D. regulate protein trafficking in the Golgi complex.
E. supplement decreased levels of monolayer lipids and proteins.

12. Ammonia is toxic to the central nervous system. One explanation for this toxicity is that reactions using ammonia in the brain deplete the TCA cycle of intermediates. Which following pair of enzymes catalyze these reactions?
A. Glutamate dehydrogenase and glutamine synthetase.
B. Glutathione synthetase and y-glutamyl transpeptidase.
C. Branched chain amino acid transaminase and branched chain keto acid dehydrogenase.
D. Glutaminase and glutamine synthetase.
E. Glutamate dehydrogenase and glutaminase.

13. following statements about chlorides are true EXCEPT:
A. serum chloride level is reduced in diarrhea
B. it is essential for bile formation
C. salivary amylase is activated by chlorides
D. it is involved in regulation of acid base balance
E. it is necessary for formation of gastric juice

14. If after drinking some milk a child develops a stomach ache and diarrhea, it might have:
A. diverticulosis or diverticulitis.
B. a total absence of the Kreb's cycle in all cells.
C. galactosemia.
D. lactose intolerance.

15. Concerning Leptin, all of follwing are true EXCEPT:
A. deficiency is associated with obesity
B. concentrations are positively correlated with body mass index
C. concentrations are usually higher in females than males
D. is a signal produced by adipose tissue
E. acts on the hypothalamus

16. A patient who is suffering from severe liver damage would be expected to show which of thefollowing clinical findings?
A. increased levels of bilirubin
B. decreased levels of bilirubin
C. increase levels of bilirubin diglucuronide
D. increased levels of urobilin and stercobilin
E. none of the above

17. Iron-protein complexes are important for all of the following EXCEPT
A. detoxification of drugs and other xenobiotics.
B. oxygen transport in muscle cells.
C. regulation of mRNA translation and stability.
D. electron transport in mitochondria.
E. storage of excess iron in the plasma.

18. Which of the following compounds is most toxic?
A. glycine
B. phenylpyruvate
C. phenylalanine
D. tyrosine
E. lysine

19. Which of the following antibiotics might allow the formation of a peptide dimer?
A. Erythromycin
B. Tetracycline
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Streptomycin

20. A patient with a PCO2 of 30 and a base deficit of +2 most likely has:
A. respiratory acidosis
B. respiratory alkalosis
C. metabolic acidosis
D. metabolic alkalosis
 
can any one solve these:

01. In galactosemia, accumulation of which compound in the lens of the eye causes cataract formation?
C. Galactose 1-phosphate

02. Inadequate intestinal absorption of vitamin B12 might lead to a deficiency in which enzyme in fatty acid oxidation?
A. methylmalonyl-CoA mutase

03. All of the following are characteristic of cystic fibrosis EXCEPT:
C. decreased NaCl levels in sweat.

05. The conjugation of bilirubin
D. is catalysed by a glucuronyl transferase

06. Following conditions are associated with hyperuriaemia EXCEPT:
E. type I glycogen storage disease (Von Gierke's disease)??

07. A 5-month-old male presents with seizures and delayed development. Upon newborn screen he was detected to have hyperphenylalaninemia and is on a phenylalanine-restricted, synthetic diet. The most likely cause for his current symptoms is a
E. defect in phenylalanine hydroxylase.

08. A serum sodium value of 115 mEq/liter may be associated with all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
C. Addison's disease

09. The discontinuous nature of DNA synthesis:
A. Leads to the formation of Okazaki fragments

10. The deformation of an erythrocyte that occurs as this cell flows through a capillary is due to
B. extensive changes in phospholipid asymmetry in the membrane

11. The rationale for treating pre-term neonates with surfactant preparations is to
A. stimulate synthesis of dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine.

13. following statements about chlorides are true EXCEPT:
B. it is essential for bile formation

14. If after drinking some milk a child develops a stomach ache and diarrhea, it might have:
D. lactose intolerance.

18. Which of the following compounds is most toxic?
tyrosine

19. Which of the following antibiotics might allow the formation of a peptide dimer?
B.D?
 
I would really like to help, but these questions are REALLY tough! Some of them are pretty much impossible. If you were to get a bunch of questions wrong on the Biochem section, most of them would be from this list. With the exception of only a bunch, I have no clue how to answer any of them. Sorry to sound discouraging.
 
01. In galactosemia, accumulation of which compound in the lens of the eye causes cataract formation

i think the answer for ths is galactitol not..galactose 1 po4
 
01. In galactosemia, accumulation of which compound in the lens of the eye causes cataract formation

i think the answer for ths is galactitol not..galactose 1 po4
hi meebo can you explain why you opt for that?
thanks
 
hi meebo can you explain why you opt for that?
thanks

Hi swetha dentist,

Could you explain your choice? I am not sure about the answer, but I would like to choose E too. Since this is about accumulation of compound, which should be end-product not intermediate... I GUESS galactitol looks like that. and the others are not. Anyway, it's just my guess.
 
Hi swetha dentist,

Could you explain your choice? I am not sure about the answer, but I would like to choose E too. Since this is about accumulation of compound, which should be end-product not intermediate... I GUESS galactitol looks like that. and the others are not. Anyway, it's just my guess.

Galactosemia is a rare genetic metabolic disorder which affects an individual's ability to properly digest the sugar galactose. Lactose in food (such as dairy products) is broken down by the body into glucose and galactose. Normally, galactose is then converted into glucose by the enzyme GALT (galactose-1-phosphate uridylyltransferase). In individuals with galactosemia, GALT activity is severely diminished, leading to toxic levels of galactose to build up in the blood, resulting in hepatomegaly (an enlarged liver), renal failure, cataracts, and brain damage. Without treatment, mortality in infants with galactosemia is about 75%.

source of material--internet
 
Hi swetha dentist,

Could you explain your choice? I am not sure about the answer, but I would like to choose E too. Since this is about accumulation of compound, which should be end-product not intermediate... I GUESS galactitol looks like that. and the others are not. Anyway, it's just my guess.

sorry I misread the question i thought it was intermediate but again i searched for the answer relative would be UDP-galctose .I dont know the correct answer .thanks
 
01. In galactosemia, accumulation of which compound in the lens of the eye causes cataract formation?

Galactosemia is a autosomal recessive disease resulting from defeciency in either galactokinase or galactose-1-phosphate uridyl tranferase.
In this defeciencies,galactose accumulates and is converted to galactitol in nervous system leading to ******ation and in lens of the eye leading to cataracts.

the correct answer is Galactitol
 
sorry I misread the question i thought it was intermediate but again i searched for the answer relative would be UDP-galctose .I dont know the correct answer .thanks

i think itz galactitol....
galactose 1 phosphate accumulates and excess galactose is converted to galactitol by aldose reductase ....
where as in diabetes mellitus itz sorbitol accumulation that causes cataract.

correct me if i'm wrong
 
i think itz galactitol....
galactose 1 phosphate accumulates and excess galactose is converted to galactitol by aldose reductase ....
where as in diabetes mellitus itz sorbitol accumulation that causes cataract.

correct me if i'm wrong
i appreciate ,thanks
 
07. A 5-month-old male presents with seizures and delayed development. Upon newborn screen he was detected to have hyperphenylalaninemia and is on a phenylalanine-restricted, synthetic diet. The most likely cause for his current symptoms is a
B. defect in dihydropteridine reductase.
 
01. In galactosemia, accumulation of which compound in the lens of the eye causes cataract formation?
A. UDP-glucose
B. UDP-galactose
C. Galactose 1-phosphate
D. Galacturonic acid
galacotil
 
. In galactosemia, accumulation of which compound in the lens of the eye causes cataract formation?
A. UDP-glucose
B. UDP-galactose
C. Galactose 1-phosphate
D. Galacturonic acid
E. Galactitol
02. Inadequate intestinal absorption of vitamin B12 might lead to a deficiency in which enzyme in fatty acid oxidation?
A. methylmalonyl-CoA mutase
B. L-3-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase
C. Thiolase
D. enoyl-CoA hydratase
E. acyl-CoA dehydrogenase

03. All of the following are characteristic of cystic fibrosis EXCEPT:
A. increased clogging of pancreatic ducts.
B. decreased fertility in males.
C. decreased NaCl levels in sweat.
D. increased viscosity of lung airway secretions.
E. decreased intestinal secretion.
as test is done of sweat postive if elevated nacl

04. Patients with hereditary orotic aciduria are treated by feeding them uridine, which is converted to UMP and other missing pyrimidine nucleotides. This also corrects the over production of orotic acid because:
A. the de novo pathway is no longer blocked.
B. carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II is inhibited.
C. dihydroorotate can not be further oxidized.
D. the blockage occurs after the committed step.
E. purine nucleotide synthesis effectively competes for excess PRPP.

05. The conjugation of bilirubin
A. is impaired in Dubin-Johnson syndrome
B. occurs in the Kupfer cells of the liver
C. is inhibited by rifampicin
D. is catalysed by a glucuronyl transferase
E. is increased by valproate

.06. Following conditions are associated with hyperuriaemia EXCEPT:
A. Down's syndrome
B. Starvation
C. Xanthinuria
D. PsoriasisE. type I glycogen storage disease (Von Gierke's disease)


correct me if i m wrong
 
07. A 5-month-old male presents with seizures and delayed development. Upon newborn screen he was detected to have hyperphenylalaninemia and is on a phenylalanine-restricted, synthetic diet. The most likely cause for his current symptoms is a
A. defect in tetrahydrofolate reductase.
B. defect in dihydropteridine reductase.
C. tyrosine deficiency.
D. tryptophan deficiency.
E. defect in phenylalanine hydroxylase.

08. A serum sodium value of 115 mEq/liter may be associated with all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
A. Inappropriate antidiuretic hormone
B. Liver disease
C. Addison's disease
D. Water deprivation

09. The discontinuous nature of DNA synthesis:
A. Leads to the formation of Okazaki fragments
B. Means that both 3'->5' and 5'->3' polymerases are used
C. Requires that DNA polymerase III dissociate frequently from the template on both strands of a replication fork
D. Is necessary because synthesis is bidirectional from the initiation point
E. Means that synthesis occurs on the second strand of DNA only after synthesis of the first strand is completed

10. The deformation of an erythrocyte that occurs as this cell flows through a capillary is due to
A. a calcium-mediated phase transition of specific phospholipid classes
B. extensive changes in phospholipid asymmetry in the membrane
C. interactions between integral and peripheral membrane proteins
D. a loss of proteins that are anchored to the membrane by lipids

11. The rationale for treating pre-term neonates with surfactant preparations is to
A. stimulate synthesis of dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine.
B. increase secretion of tubular myelin.
C. accelerate the phagocytic activity of alveolar macrophages.
D. regulate protein trafficking in the Golgi complex.
E. supplement decreased levels of monolayer lipids and proteins.

12. Ammonia is toxic to the central nervous system. One explanation for this toxicity is that reactions using ammonia in the brain deplete the TCA cycle of intermediates. Which following pair of enzymes catalyze these reactions?
A. Glutamate dehydrogenase and glutamine synthetase.
B. Glutathione synthetase and y-glutamyl transpeptidase.
C. Branched chain amino acid transaminase and branched chain keto acid dehydrogenase.
D. Glutaminase and glutamine synthetase.
E. Glutamate dehydrogenase and glutaminase.

13. following statements about chlorides are true EXCEPT:
A. serum chloride level is reduced in diarrhea
B. it is essential for bile formation
C. salivary amylase is activated by chlorides
D. it is involved in regulation of acid base balance
E. it is necessary for formation of gastric juice

14. If after drinking some milk a child develops a stomach ache and diarrhea, it might have:
A. diverticulosis or diverticulitis.
B. a total absence of the Kreb's cycle in all cells.
C. galactosemia.
D. lactose intolerance.

15. Concerning Leptin, all of follwing are true EXCEPT:
A. deficiency is associated with obesity
B. concentrations are positively correlated with body mass index
C. concentrations are usually higher in females than males
D. is a signal produced by adipose tissue
E. acts on the hypothalamus

16. A patient who is suffering from severe liver damage would be expected to show which of thefollowing clinical findings?
A. increased levels of bilirubin
B. decreased levels of bilirubin
C. increase levels of bilirubin diglucuronide
D. increased levels of urobilin and stercobilin
E. none of the above

 
17. Iron-protein complexes are important for all of the following EXCEPT
A. detoxification of drugs and other xenobiotics.
B. oxygen transport in muscle cells.
C. regulation of mRNA translation and stability.
D. electron transport in mitochondria.
E. storage of excess iron in the plasma.

18. Which of the following compounds is most toxic?
A. glycine
B. phenylpyruvate
C. phenylalanine
D. tyrosine
E. lysine

19. Which of the following antibiotics might allow the formation of a peptide dimer?
A. Erythromycin
B. Tetracycline
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Streptomycin

20. A patient with a PCO2 of 30 and a base deficit of +2 most likely has:
A. respiratory acidosis
B. respiratory alkalosis
C. metabolic acidosis
D. metabolic alkalosis
 
thank u for helping me solve the last 20 here another

01. Which of the following would occur in untreated diabetes?A. Hypoglycemia with elevated blood sugar.
B. Ketosis and hypoglycemia.
C. Ketosis and elevated blood sugar.
D. Hyperglycemia accompanied by scurvy.

02. A defect in which of the following enzymes is likely to have the most severe effect on protein digestion?
A. Amylase
B. Carboxypeptidase A
C. Chymotrypsin
D. Elastase
E. Trypsin

03. Characteristics commonly found in conditions which involve abnormalities in porphyrin metabolism include all of the following EXCEPT
A. skin sensitivity.
B. neurologic disturbances.
C. decreased dietary requirement for protein
D. erythrocyte fragility.
E. liver disease

04. Which of the following is not required in the diet of a healthy adult human?
A. cysteine
B. isoleucine
C. lysine
D. methionine
E. phenylalanine

05. Hyponatraemia is usually found in all of following EXCEPT:
A. Severe liver disease
B. Bronchial carcinoma
C. Cushings syndrome
D. Ingestion of ecstasy
E. Untreated congestive cardiac failure

06. Folic acid
A. is absorbed predominantly in the jejunum
B. body stores are adequate for 3 years
C. is effective treatment for alcohol-induced macrocytosis
D. bioavailability is improved by cooking
E. blood level is reduced in stagnant loop syndrome

07. If a child develops cataracts and a lowering of intelligence after drinking milk regularly he/she is probably suffering from:
A. lactose intolerance.
B. diabetes.
C. galactosemia.
D. disaccharidase deficiency.

08. Vitamin A deficiency can result in
A. weakness of left-right eye movement.
B. dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia.
C. night blindness and Bitot's spots.
D. eye strain, sensitivity to light and cracks at corners of mouth.
E. increased fragility of red blood cell membranes.

09. One reason that exercise is beneficial in the treatment of Type II diabetes mellitus is that
A. fatty acid synthesis is activated in the liver.
B. glucose transporters are activated in the liver.
C. glucose transporters are activated in the muscle.
D. ketone body synthesis is inhibited in the liver.
E. glycogen breakdown is inhibited in the muscle.

10. A deficiency in glucose 6-phosphatase will cause all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Fasting hypoglycemia
B. Negative blood glucose response to galactose injection
C. Lactic acidosis
D. Hyperlipidemia
E. Abnormal glycogen structure

11. G proteins are
A. growth factors
B. part of cell surface receptors
C. Immunoglobulins
D. Albumins
E. nuclear proteins

12. Human breast milk
A. can be safely used in babies with galactosaemia
B. contains more protein than cow's milk
C. contains less fat than cow's milk
D. has a relatively high sodium content
E. contains less carbohydrate than cow's milk


13. Bile acids
A. are formed in the pancreas from cholesterol
B. are conjugated with taurine and glycine before excretion into bile
C. are about 50% reabsorbed from the intestinal lumen
D. cannot be metabolised by intestinal bacteria
E. are synthesised at up to 10mg/day in normal individuals

14. Protamine:
A. is a basic protein
B. 1mg antagonises 100 mg heparin
C. is a myocardial stimulant
D. is contraindicated in hepatic failure
E. is 60% protein bound

15. When the level of glucose in the blood becomes very low to the point a person feels faint or goes into a coma, the condition is called:
A. hypotension.
B. diabetes.
C. starvation.
D. hypoglycemia.
E. Diabetic ketosis.

16. Following statement concerning nephritic syndrome are true EXCEPT:
A. There is an increase in the interstitial fluid volume and oedema.
B. There is renal retention of sodium and water.
C. There is an increase in glomerular capillary permeability to albumin leading to proteinuria.
D. Lipiduria may lead to the presence of oval fat bodies in the urine.
E. Hypoalbuminaemia (low plasma albumin concentration) is primarily due to decreased protein synthesis by the liver.

17. If a person had glossitis, cheilosis and cataracts you might suspect a deficiency of:
A. niacin.
B. riboflavin.
C. vitamin C.
D. thiamin.
E. Vitamin A

18. Which of the following plays a major role in regulating the elimination of alcohol from the body?
A. Liver alcohol dehydrogenase
B. muscle hexokinase
C. Brain acetaldehyde dehydrogenase
D. Kidney antidiuretic hormone
E. Lung respiratory rate

19. which one of the following statements concerning gluconeogeenesis is false:
A. In mammals gluconeogenesis occurs in liver
B. In mammals gluconeogenesis occurs in adipose tissue
C. In mammals gluconeogenesis occurs in kidney
D. The pathway is stimulated by glucagons
E. The pathway is inhibited by insulin

20. Tyrosine, in addition to being found in protein, can also be converted to:
A. Tryptophan.
B. Serotonin (in the brain).
C. Adrenalin (in the adrenal gland).
D. thyroid hormones.
E. ACTH
 
QUOTE=medoboy2;4421761]thank u for helping me solve the last 20 here another

01. Which of the following would occur in untreated diabetes
B. Ketosis and hypoglycemia.

02. A defect in which of the following enzymes is likely to have the most severe effect on protein digestion?
E. Trypsin

04. Which of the following is not required in the diet of a healthy adult human?
A. cysteine

05. Hyponatraemia is usually found in all of following EXCEPTC.
Cushings syndrome

08. Vitamin A deficiency can result in
D. eye strain, sensitivity to light and cracks at corners of mouth.

10. A deficiency in glucose 6-phosphatase will cause all of the following EXCEPT:
E. Abnormal glycogen structure

11. G proteins are
B. part of cell surface receptors

12. Human breast milk
B. contains more protein than cow's milk??

15. When the level of glucose in the blood becomes very low to the point a person feels faint or goes into a coma, the condition is called:
D. hypoglycemia.

16. Following statement concerning nephritic syndrome are true EXCEPT:
A. There is an increase in the interstitial fluid volume and oedema.
B. There is renal retention of sodium and water.
C. There is an increase in glomerular capillary permeability to albumin leading to proteinuria.
D. Lipiduria may lead to the presence of oval fat bodies in the urine.
E. Hypoalbuminaemia (low plasma albumin concentration) is primarily due to decreased protein synthesis by the liver.

it is all about nephrotic 😕

17. If a person had glossitis, cheilosis and cataracts you might suspect a deficiency of:
B. riboflavin.

19. which one of the following statements concerning gluconeogeenesis is false:
B. In mammals gluconeogenesis occurs in adipose tissue

20. Tyrosine, in addition to being found in protein, can also be converted to:
D. thyroid hormones.
 
01. Which of the following would occur in untreated diabetes?A. Hypoglycemia with elevated blood sugar.
B. Ketosis and hypoglycemia.
C. Ketosis and elevated blood sugar.
D. Hyperglycemia accompanied by scurvy.

02. A defect in which of the following enzymes is likely to have the most severe effect on protein digestion?
A. Amylase
B. Carboxypeptidase A
C. Chymotrypsin
D. Elastase
E. Trypsin

03. Characteristics commonly found in conditions which involve abnormalities in porphyrin metabolism include all of the following EXCEPT
A. skin sensitivity.
B. neurologic disturbances.
C. decreased dietary requirement for protein
D. erythrocyte fragility.
E. liver disease

04. Which of the following is not required in the diet of a healthy adult human?
A. cysteineB. isoleucine
C. lysine
D. methionine
E. phenylalanine

05. Hyponatraemia is usually found in all of following EXCEPT:
A. Severe liver disease
B. Bronchial carcinoma
C. Cushings syndrome
D. Ingestion of ecstasy
E. Untreated congestive cardiac failure

06. Folic acid
A. is absorbed predominantly in the jejunum
B. body stores are adequate for 3 years
C. is effective treatment for alcohol-induced macrocytosis
D. bioavailability is improved by cooking
E. blood level is reduced in stagnant loop syndrome
 
07. If a child develops cataracts and a lowering of intelligence after drinking milk regularly he/she is probably suffering from:
A. lactose intolerance.
B. diabetes.
C. galactosemia.
D. disaccharidase deficiency.

08. Vitamin A deficiency can result in
A. weakness of left-right eye movement.
B. dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia.
C. night blindness and Bitot's spots.
D. eye strain, sensitivity to light and cracks at corners of mouth.
E. increased fragility of red blood cell membranes.

09. One reason that exercise is beneficial in the treatment of Type II diabetes mellitus is that
A. fatty acid synthesis is activated in the liver.
B. glucose transporters are activated in the liver.
C. glucose transporters are activated in the muscle.
D. ketone body synthesis is inhibited in the liver.
E. glycogen breakdown is inhibited in the muscle.

10. A deficiency in glucose 6-phosphatase will cause all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Fasting hypoglycemia
B. Negative blood glucose response to galactose injection
C. Lactic acidosis
D. Hyperlipidemia
E. Abnormal glycogen structure

11. G proteins are
A. growth factors
B. part of cell surface receptors
C. Immunoglobulins
D. Albumins
E. nuclear proteins

12. Human breast milk
A. can be safely used in babies with galactosaemia
B. contains more protein than cow's milk?
C. contains less fat than cow's milk
D. has a relatively high sodium content
E. contains less carbohydrate than cow's milk


13. Bile acids
A. are formed in the pancreas from cholesterol
B. are conjugated with taurine and glycine before excretion into bile
C. are about 50% reabsorbed from the intestinal lumen
D. cannot be metabolised by intestinal bacteria
E. are synthesised at up to 10mg/day in normal individuals

14. Protamine:
A. is a basic protein
B. 1mg antagonises 100 mg heparin
C. is a myocardial stimulant
D. is contraindicated in hepatic failure
E. is 60% protein bound

15. When the level of glucose in the blood becomes very low to the point a person feels faint or goes into a coma, the condition is called:
A. hypotension.
B. diabetes.
C. starvation.
D. hypoglycemia.
E. Diabetic ketosis.

16. Following statement concerning nephritic syndrome are true EXCEPT:
A. There is an increase in the interstitial fluid volume and oedema.
B. There is renal retention of sodium and water.
C. There is an increase in glomerular capillary permeability to albumin leading to proteinuria.
D. Lipiduria may lead to the presence of oval fat bodies in the urine.
E. Hypoalbuminaemia (low plasma albumin concentration) is primarily due to decreased protein synthesis by the liver.

17. If a person had glossitis, cheilosis and cataracts you might suspect a deficiency of:
A. niacin.
B. riboflavin.
C. vitamin C.
D. thiamin.
E. Vitamin A

18. Which of the following plays a major role in regulating the elimination of alcohol from the body?
A. Liver alcohol dehydrogenase
B. muscle hexokinase
C. Brain acetaldehyde dehydrogenase
D. Kidney antidiuretic hormone
E. Lung respiratory rate

19. which one of the following statements concerning gluconeogeenesis is false:
A. In mammals gluconeogenesis occurs in liver
B. In mammals gluconeogenesis occurs in adipose tissue
C. In mammals gluconeogenesis occurs in kidney
D. The pathway is stimulated by glucagons
E. The pathway is inhibited by insulin

20. Tyrosine, in addition to being found in protein, can also be converted to:
A. Tryptophan.
B. Serotonin (in the brain).
C. Adrenalin (in the adrenal gland).
D. thyroid hormones.
E. ACTH
correct me if i m wrong ...... this is really good qs .....
 
01. Acidosis may result in all of following EXCEPT:
A. potassium retention
B. a rise in plasma chloride
C. a low pCO2
D. peripheral vasodilation
E. tetany

02. The biochemical defect in Osteogenesis Imperfecta, type II is:
A. a mutation in the alpha 1 chain of Type I collagen.
B. a deficiency in lysyl hydroxylase.
C. a deficiency in lysyl oxidase.
D. a deficiency in collagenase.

03. Methylmalonyl CoA mutase is an enzyme involved in the catabolism of odd chain fatty acids. Its coenzyme is
A. biotin.
B. tetrahydrobiopterin.
C. vitamin C.
D. vitamin B12.
E. NADH.

04. Transport of neutral amino acids in the epithelial cells of intestine and renal tubules is decreased in:
A. Niemann-Pick disease
B. Tay-Sachs disease
C. Hartnup’s disease
D. Gaucher’s disease
E. all of above

05. Which of the following enzymes is activated in response to high levels of insulin?
A. Glucokinase
B. Hexokinase
C. phosphofructokinase-1, muscle
D. phosphofructokinase-1, liver

06. low levels of plasma renin are associated with:
A. pregnancy
B. malignant hypertention
C. excess sodium uptake
D. none of above

07. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents
A. are antagonists of prostaglandins in their binding to membrane receptors.
B. are agonists of eicosanoids in their binding to nuclear receptors.
C. activate the hydrolysis of polyunsaturated fatty acids from membrane phospholipids.
D. inhibit the conversion of arachidonic acid to oxidized, cyclized products.


08. Which of the following have their own self replicating DNA?
A. Nucleolus
B. Mitochondria
C. Lysosomes
D. Glogi body
E. rough Endothelial reticule

09. A defect in the enzyme that catalyzes the attack of guanine on phosphoribosylpyrophosphate (PRPP) was discovered in a biopsy sample from a patient with hyperuricemia. Which metabolic process can you conclude was defective in the patient?
A. Purine salvage
B. De novo synthesis of inosinic acid (IMP)
C. Synthesis of GMP from IMP
D. Regulation of PRPP amidotransferase
E. Feedback inhibition of PRPP synthetase

10. Inability to lower the urine pH below 5.2 is a characteristic feature of
A. chronic renal failure
B. respiratory failure
C. renal tubular acidosis
D. chronic lithium therapy
E. cranial diabetes insipidus

11. Elastin is like collagen in each of the following ways EXCEPT:
A. it is found in striated fibrils.
B. it is covalently cross-linked to other elastin molecules through structures derived from lysine residues.
C. it has a higher than average content of the amino acid proline.
D. approximately 30% of its amino acids are glycine residues

12. Which two diseases are most likely caused by eating too much sucrose, based on current knowledge, all other factors in the diet being equal?
A. Galactosemia and tooth decay.
B. Diverticulosis and diabetes.
C. Obesity and heart disease.
D. Diverticulosis and obesity.

13. An enzyme which joins DNA molecules together is called
A. a restriction endonuclease.
B. a DNA lyase
C. a DNA ligase.
D. a DNA polymerase.
E. a reverse transcriptase.

14. The difference between Type I (juvenile) and Type II (maturity-onset) diabetes is:
A. blood glucose is low in Type I diabetes and high in Type II.
B. Type II responds readily to injections of insulin - Type I doesn't.
C. blood insulin is elevated in Type I but not in Type II.
D. Type II is sometimes corrected by losing weight - Type I isn't.

15. Graves disease results from
A. binding of an immunoglobulin to the TSH receptor on thyroid cells.
B. insufficient dietary iodine.
C. hypothalamic insufficiency.
D. pituitary insufficiency.

16. In the treatment of hypercholesterolemia, the rationale for increased regular exercise is to
A. increase the ratio: total cholesterol/high density lipoprotein cholesterol
B. decrease the reabsorption of bile acids.
C. reduce the binding of ligands to the apo-E receptor.
D. reduce the formation of oxidized low density lipoproteins.
E. elevate the level of high density lipoproteins.

17. All of the following compounds EXCEPT which one would be expected to be found in excess amounts in the urine of an individual with phenylketonuria?
A. Tyrosine
B. phenyllactic acid
C. phenylacetic acid
D. phenylpyruvic acid

18. The regulatory mechanism of body water is influenced by the hormone
A. ACTH
B. Gonadotropin
C. Epinephrine
D. Insulin
E. Oxitocin


19. Defective intestinal absorption of copper occurs in
A. Menke’s disease
B. Wilsion’s disease
C. Gaucher’s disease
D. Her’s disease
E. None of above

20. For what metabolic process is riboflavin required?
A. The cellular oxidation of hydrogen resulting in heat production.
B. The synthesis of the protein, collagen.
C. The synthesis of nonessential amino acids.
D. The synthesis of glycogen from glucose-phosphate.
 
07. If a child develops cataracts and a lowering of intelligence after drinking milk regularly he/she is probably suffering from:
A. lactose intolerance.
B. diabetes.
C. galactosemia.
D. disaccharidase deficiency.

08. Vitamin A deficiency can result in
A. weakness of left-right eye movement.
B. dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia.
C. night blindness and Bitot's spots.
D. eye strain, sensitivity to light and cracks at corners of mouth.
E. increased fragility of red blood cell membranes.

09. One reason that exercise is beneficial in the treatment of Type II diabetes mellitus is that
A. fatty acid synthesis is activated in the liver.
B. glucose transporters are activated in the liver.
C. glucose transporters are activated in the muscle.
D. ketone body synthesis is inhibited in the liver.
E. glycogen breakdown is inhibited in the muscle.

10. A deficiency in glucose 6-phosphatase will cause all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Fasting hypoglycemia
B. Negative blood glucose response to galactose injection
C. Lactic acidosis
D. Hyperlipidemia
E. Abnormal glycogen structure

11. G proteins are
A. growth factors
B. part of cell surface receptors
C. Immunoglobulins
D. Albumins
E. nuclear proteins

12. Human breast milk
A. can be safely used in babies with galactosaemia
B. contains more protein than cow's milk?
C. contains less fat than cow's milk
D. has a relatively high sodium content
E. contains less carbohydrate than cow's milk


13. Bile acids
A. are formed in the pancreas from cholesterol
B. are conjugated with taurine and glycine before excretion into bile
C. are about 50% reabsorbed from the intestinal lumen
D. cannot be metabolised by intestinal bacteria
E. are synthesised at up to 10mg/day in normal individuals

14. Protamine:
A. is a basic protein
B. 1mg antagonises 100 mg heparin
C. is a myocardial stimulant
D. is contraindicated in hepatic failure
E. is 60% protein bound

15. When the level of glucose in the blood becomes very low to the point a person feels faint or goes into a coma, the condition is called:
A. hypotension.
B. diabetes.
C. starvation.
D. hypoglycemia.
E. Diabetic ketosis.

16. Following statement concerning nephritic syndrome are true EXCEPT:
A. There is an increase in the interstitial fluid volume and oedema.
B. There is renal retention of sodium and water.
C. There is an increase in glomerular capillary permeability to albumin leading to proteinuria.
D. Lipiduria may lead to the presence of oval fat bodies in the urine.
E. Hypoalbuminaemia (low plasma albumin concentration) is primarily due to decreased protein synthesis by the liver.

17. If a person had glossitis, cheilosis and cataracts you might suspect a deficiency of:
A. niacin.
B. riboflavin.
C. vitamin C.
D. thiamin.
E. Vitamin A

18. Which of the following plays a major role in regulating the elimination of alcohol from the body?
A. Liver alcohol dehydrogenase
B. muscle hexokinase
C. Brain acetaldehyde dehydrogenase
D. Kidney antidiuretic hormone
E. Lung respiratory rate

19. which one of the following statements concerning gluconeogeenesis is false:
A. In mammals gluconeogenesis occurs in liver
B. In mammals gluconeogenesis occurs in adipose tissue
C. In mammals gluconeogenesis occurs in kidney
D. The pathway is stimulated by glucagons
E. The pathway is inhibited by insulin

20. Tyrosine, in addition to being found in protein, can also be converted to:
A. Tryptophan.
B. Serotonin (in the brain).
C. Adrenalin (in the adrenal gland).102-which of the flwng inhibits transamination reaction?
a-A high protein diet
b-increased glutamine dehydrogenase activity
c-high intracellular ADP concentration
d-pyridoxine(vit B6) deficiency
e-increased arginase activity

105-A mouth rinse contain 0.05 percent F ion. which of the flwng represents the concentration expressed as ppm F ion?
a-5
b-50
c-500
d-5000

107-recognition of ACTH by its target cell depends upon the binding of the hormone to a specific receptor on the
a-mitochondrial membrane
b-lysosomal membrane
c-nuclear membrane
d-cell membrane
e-chromosome

108-in addition to being a final product of metabolism carbon dioxide is required as a substrate for an enzyme that is associated with which of the flwng?
a-biosynthesis of glycogen from glycerol
b-biosynthesis of fatty acids from acetyl coA
c-biosynthesis of ribose-5-phosphate from glucose
d-oxidation of acetyl coA by the citric acid cycle
e-generation of ATP during mitochondrial oxidation of NADH

111-EDTA and citrate inhibit blood clot formation by binding which of the flwng?
a-ca++
b-NA+
c-HCO3-
d-Mg++
e-Fe++

115-the extracellular matrix include each of the flwng exept one?
a-collagen type IV
b-proteoglycans
c-fibronectin
d-laminin
e-myosin

119-fatty acids are linked to glycerol by which of the flwng types of bonds in triacylglycerols?
a-ester
b-amide
c-hydrogen
d-glycosidic
e-electrostatic

120-which of the flwng are the effect of Vmax and Km in competitive enzyme inhibition?
Vmax Km
a- Dec. inc.
b- dec. unaltered
c- unaltered dec.
d- unaltered inc.
e- dec. dec.

123-A urine sample with a PH of 5.7 has a hydrogen ion concentration of approximately
-3
a-2*10 M
-6
b-2*10 M
-2
c-2*10 M

126-For which is the first group of the flwng pairs more likely to be located on the surface of a globular protein than the second group of the pair?
a- -CONH2 -COO-
b- -CH2 -CH(CH2)2
c- -CH2OH -NH4+
d- -CH3 -CH2OH
e- -CH2SH -COO

133-Which of the flwng tissues uses keton bodies as a major fuel in the fed state?
a-brain
b-liver
c-muscle
d-adipose
e-red blood cells

140-A 0.2 mole/lit nacl solution and a 0.2 mole/lit glucose solution are separated by a membrane that is impermeable to these solute but is permeable to water. which of the flwng statements is correct ?
a-there will be no net movement of water to either solution
b-water will go fromthe glucose to the saline solution
c-water will go from the saline to the glucose solution
d-concentration of glucose will decrease
e-concentration of nacl will increase.

145-which of the following can induce edema?
a-lymphatic blockage
b-decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure
c-increased plasma oncotic pressure
d-decreased tissue oncotic pressure

***
160.
which of the flwing circumstances produce edema?
a-increased tissue oncotic pressure
b-increased plasma oncotic pressure
c-increased tissue hydrostatic pressure
d-decreased plasma hydrostatic pressure
e-decrease venous pressure
****
166-What is the net charge on glutamic acid at a PH of 1?
a- +2
B- +1
C- 0
d- -1
e- -2

167-skeletal muscle blood flow is autoregulated by:
a-epinephrine
b-axon reflexes
c-acetylcholine
d-spinal reflexes
e-local metabolites

173-which of the flwng represents the normal physiologic stimulus for the hering-breuer reflex?
a-inflation of the lung
b-reduced ph in arterial blood
c-reduced oxygen tension in arterial blood
d-increased carbon dioxide tension in arterial blood
e-decreased carbon dioxide tension in arterial blood

174-The first sound one hears while determining blood pressure is caused by which of the flwng?
a-closure of AV valve
b-closure of aortic valve
c-turbulent blood flow through the artery
d-intermitent flow through venous valves
e-laminar blood flow through the occluded artery

188-in which of the flwng condition is oxygen partial pressure low in arterial blood?
a-anemia
b-polycythemia
c-pulmonary AV shunt
d-hypovolemia due to hemorrhage

195-in which segment of the nephron does tubular fluid have the highest osmolality?
a-henle's loop
b-distal tubule
c-proximal tubule
d-collecting duct
e-bowman's capsule

198-sectioning of the hypothalamic-hypophyseal stalk will produce each of the flwng effects except one,
a-infertility
b-hypercalcemia
c-reduced BMR
d-atrophy of the adrenal cortex

184-cushing's syndrome is characterized by each of the flwng conditions except one:
a-increased protein anabolism
b-increased androgen levels
c-hyperglycemia
d-hypertension
e-hyperkalemia

Thanks for your contribution.
 
01. Acidosis may result in all of following EXCEPT:
A. potassium retention
B. a rise in plasma chloride
C. a low pCO2
D. peripheral vasodilation
E. tetany

02. The biochemical defect in Osteogenesis Imperfecta, type II is:
A. a mutation in the alpha 1 chain of Type I collagen.
B. a deficiency in lysyl hydroxylase.
C. a deficiency in lysyl oxidase.
D. a deficiency in collagenase.

03. Methylmalonyl CoA mutase is an enzyme involved in the catabolism of odd chain fatty acids. Its coenzyme is
A. biotin.
B. tetrahydrobiopterin.
C. vitamin C.
D. vitamin B12.
E. NADH.

04. Transport of neutral amino acids in the epithelial cells of intestine and renal tubules is decreased in:
A. Niemann-Pick disease
B. Tay-Sachs disease
C. Hartnup’s disease
D. Gaucher’s disease
E. all of above
05. Which of the following enzymes is activated in response to high levels of insulin?
A. GlucokinaseB. Hexokinase
C. phosphofructokinase-1, muscle
D. phosphofructokinase-1, liver

06. low levels of plasma renin are associated with:
A. pregnancy
B. malignant hypertention
C. excess sodium uptake
D. none of above

07. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents
A. are antagonists of prostaglandins in their binding to membrane receptors.
B. are agonists of eicosanoids in their binding to nuclear receptors.
C. activate the hydrolysis of polyunsaturated fatty acids from membrane phospholipids.
D. inhibit the conversion of arachidonic acid to oxidized, cyclized products.


08. Which of the following have their own self replicating DNA?
A. Nucleolus
B. Mitochondria
C. Lysosomes
D. Glogi body
E. rough Endothelial reticule
 
08. Which of the following have their own self replicating DNA?
A. Nucleolus
B. Mitochondria
C. Lysosomes
D. Glogi body
E. rough Endothelial reticule

09. A defect in the enzyme that catalyzes the attack of guanine on phosphoribosylpyrophosphate (PRPP) was discovered in a biopsy sample from a patient with hyperuricemia. Which metabolic process can you conclude was defective in the patient?
A. Purine salvage
B. De novo synthesis of inosinic acid (IMP)
C. Synthesis of GMP from IMP
D. Regulation of PRPP amidotransferase
E. Feedback inhibition of PRPP synthetase

10. Inability to lower the urine pH below 5.2 is a characteristic feature of
A. chronic renal failure
B. respiratory failure
C. renal tubular acidosis
D. chronic lithium therapy
E. cranial diabetes insipidus

11. Elastin is like collagen in each of the following ways EXCEPT:
A. it is found in striated fibrils.
B. it is covalently cross-linked to other elastin molecules through structures derived from lysine residues.
C. it has a higher than average content of the amino acid proline.
D. approximately 30% of its amino acids are glycine residues

12. Which two diseases are most likely caused by eating too much sucrose, based on current knowledge, all other factors in the diet being equal?
A. Galactosemia and tooth decay.
B. Diverticulosis and diabetes.
C. Obesity and heart disease.
D. Diverticulosis and obesity.

13. An enzyme which joins DNA molecules together is called
A. a restriction endonuclease.
B. a DNA lyase
C. a DNA ligase.
D. a DNA polymerase.
E. a reverse transcriptase.

14. The difference between Type I (juvenile) and Type II (maturity-onset) diabetes is:
A. blood glucose is low in Type I diabetes and high in Type II.
B. Type II responds readily to injections of insulin - Type I doesn't.
C. blood insulin is elevated in Type I but not in Type II.
D. Type II is sometimes corrected by losing weight - Type I isn't.

15. Graves disease results from
A. binding of an immunoglobulin to the TSH receptor on thyroid cells.
B. insufficient dietary iodine.
C. hypothalamic insufficiency.
D. pituitary insufficiency.

16. In the treatment of hypercholesterolemia, the rationale for increased regular exercise is to
A. increase the ratio: total cholesterol/high density lipoprotein cholesterol
B. decrease the reabsorption of bile acids.
C. reduce the binding of ligands to the apo-E receptor.
D. reduce the formation of oxidized low density lipoproteins.
E. elevate the level of high density lipoproteins.

17. All of the following compounds EXCEPT which one would be expected to be found in excess amounts in the urine of an individual with phenylketonuria?
A. TyrosineB. phenyllactic acid
C. phenylacetic acid
D. phenylpyruvic acid

18. The regulatory mechanism of body water is influenced by the hormone
A. ACTHB. Gonadotropin
C. Epinephrine
D. Insulin
E. Oxitocin


19. Defective intestinal absorption of copper occurs in
A. Menke’s disease
B. Wilsion’s diseaseC. Gaucher’s disease
D. Her’s disease
E. None of above

20. For what metabolic process is riboflavin required?
A. The cellular oxidation of hydrogen resulting in heat production.
B. The synthesis of the protein, collagen.
C. The synthesis of nonessential amino acids.
D. The synthesis of glycogen from glucose-phosphate.


correct me if i m wrong .....
 
20. Tyrosine, in addition to being found in protein, can also be converted to:
A. Tryptophan.
B. Serotonin (in the brain).
C. Adrenalin (in the adrenal gland).102-which of the flwng inhibits transamination reaction?
a-A high protein diet
b-increased glutamine dehydrogenase activity
c-high intracellular ADP concentration
d-pyridoxine(vit B6) deficiency
e-increased arginase activity

105-A mouth rinse contain 0.05 percent F ion. which of the flwng represents the concentration expressed as ppm F ion?
a-5
b-50
c-500
d-5000

107-recognition of ACTH by its target cell depends upon the binding of the hormone to a specific receptor on the
a-mitochondrial membrane
b-lysosomal membrane
c-nuclear membrane
d-cell membrane
e-chromosome

108-in addition to being a final product of metabolism carbon dioxide is required as a substrate for an enzyme that is associated with which of the flwng?
a-biosynthesis of glycogen from glycerol
b-biosynthesis of fatty acids from acetyl coA
c-biosynthesis of ribose-5-phosphate from glucose
d-oxidation of acetyl coA by the citric acid cycle
e-generation of ATP during mitochondrial oxidation of NADH

111-EDTA and citrate inhibit blood clot formation by binding which of the flwng?
a-ca++b-NA+
c-HCO3-
d-Mg++
e-Fe++

115-the extracellular matrix include each of the flwng exept one?
a-collagen type IV
b-proteoglycans
c-fibronectin
d-laminin
e-myosin
119-fatty acids are linked to glycerol by which of the flwng types of bonds in triacylglycerols?
a-ester
b-amide
c-hydrogen
d-glycosidic
e-electrostatic

120-which of the flwng are the effect of Vmax and Km in competitive enzyme inhibition?
Vmax Km
a- Dec. inc.
b- dec. unaltered
c- unaltered dec.
d- unaltered inc.
e- dec. dec.

123-A urine sample with a PH of 5.7 has a hydrogen ion concentration of approximately
a-2*10 M
-6
b-2*10 M
-2
c-2*10 M
 
sonu thanks a lot
here is 20 again

01. Which of the following lipids contains phosphate?
A. Cholesterol
B. Cerebroside
C. Testosterone
D. Diacylglycerol
E. Sphingomyelin
F. Ceramide

02. Ribosomes are involved in:
A. the final stage of protein synthesis
B. oxidation-reduction reactions
C. breakdown of hydrogen peroxide
D. nucleic acid synthesis
E. none of above

03. The common disaccharide, sucrose, contains which of the following monosaccharide residues?
A. glucose and galactose
B. glucose and mannose
C. glucose and fructose
D. glucose only
E. mannose and galactose

04. Which of the following is a basic amino acid?
A. Asparagine
B. Valine
C. Glutamine
D. Histidine
E. Leucine

05. In the synthesis of gangliosides, serine contributes a👎
A. amino group that is modified by N-acetylneuraminate.
B. hydroxyl group that become phosphorylated.
C. amino group that becomes sulfated.
D. carboxylate group that reacts with phosphatidylcholine.
E. hydroxyl group that forms a glycosidic bond.

06. Which of the following is a common dietary saturated fatty acid?
A. Oleic acid
B. Stearic acid
C. Linolenic acid
D. Arachidonic acid

07. An essential amino acid
A. can be synthesised if there is a source of nitrotgen
B. can be synthesised if protein intake is adequate
C. cannot be synthesised in sufficient quantities to meet the bodies need
D. none of the above

08. Compounds that protect against damage by reactive oxygen species include

A. ascorbic acid and vitamin K.
B. ascorbic acid and vitamin E.
C. carotene and ferrous ion.
D. nicotinic acid (niacin) and vitamin E
E. riboflavin and vitamin A.

09. In response to metabolic acidosis, biosyntheis of glutaminase increases in:
A Brain
B. Liver
C. Intestine
D. Kidney
E. Muscle

10. The two hormones that intimately regulate basal metabolism are:
A. thyroxine and insulin.
B. gastrin and insulin.
C. triiodothyronine and thyroxine.
D. insulin and serotonin.

11. In the disease scurvy, a protein that may not be properly synthesized is:
A. Trypsin
B. opsin
C. hemoglobin
D. Collagen
E. Insulin

12. The carbon and nitrogen atoms in the pyrimidine ring system are derived from
A. aspartate and carbamoyl phosphate
B. aspartate and glycine.
C. glutamine and glycine.
D. glutamate and carbamoyl phosphate
E. glycine and carbamoyl phosphate.

13. Enzymes that catalyze stepwise hydrolysis of mononucleotides from one end of a polynucleotide chain are
A. polymerases.
B. endonucleases.
C. ligases.
D. exonucleases.
E. nickases.

14. McArdle's disease is casued by the deficiency of :
A. glucose 6-phosphatase
B. alpha 1,6-glucosidase.
C. glycogen synthase.
D. glycogen phosphorylase.

15. In uncompetitive inhibition of enzyme
A. Inhibitor binds with enzyme-substrate complex
B. Inhibitor inactivates the enzyme to form enzyme-substrate complex
C. Inhibitor replaces substrate to form enzyme-inhibitor complex
D. None of above

16. In the gluconeogenesis of pyruvate, pyruvate is initially converted to
A. acetyl CoA
B. oxaloacetate
C. phosphoenol Pyruvate
D. glycerol

17. All of the following TCA cycle intermediates participate in other metabolic pathways EXCEPT:
A. alpha keto glutarate
B. citrate
C. fumarate
D. isocitrate
E.oxaloacetate

18. Glycolytic pathway is inhibited by
A. Chloride
B. Bromide
C. Fluoride
D. Iodide
E.none of above

19. The straight chains of glycogen molecules are broken down by
A. protein kinase
B. glycogen phosphorylase
C. a debranching enzyme
D. Adenylate cyclase


20. How many moles of ATP are produced from the breakdown of glucose to pyruvate by glycolysis?
A. 8
B. 6
C. 4
D. 2
E. 1
 
01. Which of the following lipids contains phosphate?
A. Cholesterol
B. Cerebroside
C. Testosterone
D. Diacylglycerol
E. Sphingomyelin👍
F. Ceramide

02. Ribosomes are involved in:
A. the final stage of protein synthesis👍
B. oxidation-reduction reactions
C. breakdown of hydrogen peroxide
D. nucleic acid synthesis
E. none of above

03. The common disaccharide, sucrose, contains which of the following monosaccharide residues?
A. glucose and galactose
B. glucose and mannose
C. glucose and fructose👍
D. glucose only
E. mannose and galactose

04. Which of the following is a basic amino acid?
A. Asparagine
B. Valine
C. Glutamine
D. Histidine👍
E. Leucine

05. In the synthesis of gangliosides, serine contributes a👎
A. amino group that is modified by N-acetylneuraminate.
B. hydroxyl group that become phosphorylated.
C. amino group that becomes sulfated.
D. carboxylate group that reacts with phosphatidylcholine.
E. hydroxyl group that forms a glycosidic bond.

06. Which of the following is a common dietary saturated fatty acid?
A. Oleic acid
B. Stearic acid👍
C. Linolenic acid
D. Arachidonic acid

07. An essential amino acid
A. can be synthesised if there is a source of nitrotgen
B. can be synthesised if protein intake is adequate👍
C. cannot be synthesised in sufficient quantities to meet the bodies need
D. none of the above

08. Compounds that protect against damage by reactive oxygen species include
A. ascorbic acid and vitamin K.👍
B. ascorbic acid and vitamin E.
C. carotene and ferrous ion.
D. nicotinic acid (niacin) and vitamin E
E. riboflavin and vitamin A.

09. In response to metabolic acidosis, biosyntheis of glutaminase increases in:
A Brain
B. Liver
C. Intestine
D. Kidney👍
E. Muscle

10. The two hormones that intimately regulate basal metabolism are:
A. thyroxine and insulin.
B. gastrin and insulin.
C. triiodothyronine and thyroxine.👍
D. insulin and serotonin.
 
11. In the disease scurvy, a protein that may not be properly synthesized is:
A. Trypsin
B. opsin
C. hemoglobin
D. Collagen👍
E. Insulin

12. The carbon and nitrogen atoms in the pyrimidine ring system are derived from
A. aspartate and carbamoyl phosphate
B. aspartate and glycine.
C. glutamine and glycine.
D. glutamate and carbamoyl phosphate👍
E. glycine and carbamoyl phosphate.

13. Enzymes that catalyze stepwise hydrolysis of mononucleotides from one end of a polynucleotide chain are
A. polymerases.
B. endonucleases.👍
C. ligases.
D. exonucleases.
E. nickases.

14. McArdle's disease is casued by the deficiency of :
A. glucose 6-phosphatase
B. alpha 1,6-glucosidase.
C. glycogen synthase.
D. glycogen phosphorylase.👍

15. In uncompetitive inhibition of enzyme
A. Inhibitor binds with enzyme-substrate complex👍
B. Inhibitor inactivates the enzyme to form enzyme-substrate complex
C. Inhibitor replaces substrate to form enzyme-inhibitor complex
D. None of above

16. In the gluconeogenesis of pyruvate, pyruvate is initially converted to
A. acetyl CoA
B. oxaloacetate👍
C. phosphoenol Pyruvate
D. glycerol

17. All of the following TCA cycle intermediates participate in other metabolic pathways EXCEPT:
A. alpha keto glutarate
B. citrate
C. fumarate
D. isocitrate👍
E.oxaloacetate

18. Glycolytic pathway is inhibited by
A. Chloride
B. Bromide
C. Fluoride👍
D. Iodide
E.none of above

19. The straight chains of glycogen molecules are broken down by
A. protein kinase
B. glycogen phosphorylase👍
C. a debranching enzyme
D. Adenylate cyclase


20. How many moles of ATP are produced from the breakdown of glucose to pyruvate by glycolysis?
A. 8
B. 6
C. 4👍
D. 2
E. 1
 
11. In the disease scurvy, a protein that may not be properly synthesized is:
D. Collagen

13. Enzymes that catalyze stepwise hydrolysis of mononucleotides from one end of a polynucleotide chain are
A. polymerases.

14. McArdle's disease is casued by the deficiency of :
D. glycogen phosphorylase.

15. In uncompetitive inhibition of enzyme
A. Inhibitor binds with enzyme-substrate complex

16. In the gluconeogenesis of pyruvate, pyruvate is initially converted to
C. phosphoenol Pyruvate

17. All of the following TCA cycle intermediates participate in other metabolic pathways EXCEPT:
D. isocitrate

18. Glycolytic pathway is inhibited by
C. Fluoride

19. The straight chains of glycogen molecules are broken down by
B. glycogen phosphorylase

20. How many moles of ATP are produced from the breakdown of glucose to pyruvate by glycolysis?
A. 8
 
01. Which of the following lipids contains phosphate?
A. Cholesterol
B. Cerebroside
C. Testosterone
D. Diacylglycerol
E. Sphingomyelin
F. Ceramide

02. Ribosomes are involved in:
A. the final stage of protein synthesis
B. oxidation-reduction reactions
C. breakdown of hydrogen peroxide
D. nucleic acid synthesis
E. none of above

03. The common disaccharide, sucrose, contains which of the following monosaccharide residues?
A. glucose and galactose
B. glucose and mannose
C. glucose and fructose
D. glucose only
E. mannose and galactose

04. Which of the following is a basic amino acid?
A. Asparagine
B. Valine
C. Glutamine
D. HistidineE. Leucine

05. In the synthesis of gangliosides, serine contributes a👎
A. amino group that is modified by N-acetylneuraminate.
B. hydroxyl group that become phosphorylated.
C. amino group that becomes sulfated.
D. carboxylate group that reacts with phosphatidylcholine.
E. hydroxyl group that forms a glycosidic bond.

06. Which of the following is a common dietary saturated fatty acid?
A. Oleic acid
B. Stearic acid
C. Linolenic acid
D. Arachidonic acid

07. An essential amino acid
A. can be synthesised if there is a source of nitrotgen
B. can be synthesised if protein intake is adequate
C. cannot be synthesised in sufficient quantities to meet the bodies need
D. none of the above

08. Compounds that protect against damage by reactive oxygen species include
A. ascorbic acid and vitamin K.
B. ascorbic acid and vitamin E.
C. carotene and ferrous ion.
D. nicotinic acid (niacin) and vitamin E
E. riboflavin and vitamin A.

09. In response to metabolic acidosis, biosyntheis of glutaminase increases in:
A Brain
B. Liver
C. Intestine
D. Kidney
E. Muscle

10. The two hormones that intimately regulate basal metabolism are:
A. thyroxine and insulin.
B. gastrin and insulin.
C. triiodothyronine and thyroxine.
D. insulin and serotonin.
 
13. following statements about chlorides are true EXCEPT:
A. serum chloride level is reduced in diarrhea
B. it is essential for bile formation
C. salivary amylase is activated by chlorides
D. it is involved in regulation of acid base balance
E. it is necessary for formation of gastric juice



sonu plz check this , i think it is C
 
01 The amino acid that absorbs light at 280 nm.
A. Lysine
B. Histidine
C. Tryptophan
D. Glutamate
E. Cysteine

02. Compared to the uncatalyzed reaction, enzymes cannot change the
A. equilibrium of a reaction.
B. temperature optimum of a reaction.
C. pH optimum of a reaction.
D. stereospecificity of a reaction.
E. rate of a reaction.

03. Enhancers are DNA sequences that increase the activity of promoters. Which statement about these sequences is NOT TRUE?
A. They can exert their stimulatory activity over thousands of bases.
B. They are effective when present on either DNA strand.
C. They can act from both upstream (5') and downstream (3') of promoters.
D. They show tissue-specificity; i.e., a particular enhancer is active in only certain cells.
E. Their activity is independent of protein binding.

04. A globular protein that consists mainly of alpha helices shows a pattern in which every third amino acid in the helices is hydrophobic. This pattern is likely to contribute to the forces holding the globular protein together by
A. preventing the formation of turns.
B. preventing the formation of intramolecular ion pairs.
C. making proteolytic digestion impossible.
D. making one side of the helices hydrophobic to form the interior of the protein.
E. decreasing the interaction between proteins.

05. Which of the following cellular dimensions is the largest?
A. The diameter of a tRNA molecule.
B. The diameter of a ribosome.
C. The diameter of a molecule of glucose.
D. The distance across a lipid bilayer.
E. The diameter of a DNA double helix.

06. During lyposomal digestion lipid is oxidized to a chemically heterogeneous pigmented substance called:
A. melanin
B. lipofuscin
C. lectoferrin
D. xanthocyanin
E. none of above

07. Both zinc fingers and SH2 domains
A. are localized to exoplasmic regions of plasma membrane proteins.
B. are found in members of the receptor tyrosine kinase family.
C. are subject to reversible phosphorylation and dephosphorylation.
D. direct the interaction of macromolecules in signal transduction pathways

08. Concerning glycogen which of the following statement is true?
A. a straight chain of alpha-D-glucose
B. a tree-like molecule of beta-D-glucose
C. a polymer of alpha-1,4 glucose residues with alpha-1,6 branch points
D. the main component of plant cell walls

09. Which of the following RIA calibration plots is theoretically linear for all concentrations of antigen? Assume that Y= % bound and X= unlabelled antigen concentration.
A. Y versus X
B. Log (Y) versus log (X)
C. 1/log(Y) versus log (X)
D. logit (Y) versus log (X)
E. none of above

10. Oligosaccharides are commonly found linked to protein through which of the following amino acids.
A. glutamate, aspartate and arginine
B. leucine, lysine and tyrosine
C. cysteine, methionine and histidine
D. asparagine, serine and threonine
E. proline, hydroxyproline and glycine

11. The enzyme believed to unwind the duplex DNA helix to expose single-stranded regions suitable for chromosomal replication in E. coli is called:
A. helicase
B. gyrase
C. ligase
D. primase
E. topoisomerase

12. The specificity of a ligand binding site on a protein is based on:
A. the absence of competing ligands.
B. the amino acid residues lining the binding site.
C.the presence of hydrating water molecules.
D. the opposite chirality of the binding ligand.
E. the similar size and shape of protein and ligand.

13. It important to prevent the entry of oxygen into polyacrylamide gels during the setting process because oxygen
A. will inhibit the setting of the gel
B. will catalyse the setting of the polyacrylamide gel
C. cause the acrylamide to become hygroscopic
D. cause polyacrylamide to become highly flammable.
E. Will accelerate hydrolysis of polyacrylamide

14. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The ratio of purines to pyrimidines in double-stranded DNA is 2:1 (because purines are larger than pyrimidines).
B. The ratio of T in double-stranded DNA to U in single-stranded RNA is 1:2.
C. The ratio of G to C in single-stranded RNA is 1:1.
D. The ratio of G to C in double-stranded DNA is 1:1.
E. The ratio of G to A in double-stranded DNA is 1:1.

15: DNA can always be distinguished from RNA because
A. DNA contains uracil, whereas RNA contains thymine.
B. DNA is larger.
C. The phosphodiester bond in DNA is stable to alkali, whereas that in RNA is sensitive to alkali.
D. nucleases attack DNA, but not RNA.
E. DNA is in the nucleus, whereas RNA is in the cytoplasm.

16. In oxygenated myoglobin, the oxygen molecule
A. replaces a histidine side chain in the iron coordination system.
B. causes the reversible oxidation of Fe2+ to Fe3+.
C. forces a change in conformation of one alpha-helix to a beta-strand
D. is bound between two iron-porphyrin prosthetic groups.
E. becomes the sixth member of the iron coordination system.

17. All of the following enzymes are serine proteinases EXCEPT
A. trypsin.
B. plasminogen activator.
C. neutrophil elastase.
D. factor Xa
E. collagenase.

18. During fatty acid synthesis a cysteine residue and a pantetheine moiety of fatty acid synthase
A. chelate Zn2+ in the active site.
B. undergo reversible oxidation and reduction.
C. form covalent crosslinks with other protein groups.
D. form high-energy intermediates with substrates.
E. are phosphorylated to achieve short-term regulation.

19. Glucose is radiolabeled at its 1 position and fed to an organism. Where does the label end up in serine?
A. The alpha carboxylate
B. The alpha carbon
C. The hydroxymethyl sidechain
D. None of these

20. A principal difference between facilitated and active transport systems in membranes is the
A. direction of solute movement relative to its concentration gradient
B. sensitivity to inhibition.
C. specificity and binding affinity toward the solute being transported
D. kinetics of the process.
E. number of transmembrane domains in the transport proteins
 
11. In the disease scurvy, a protein that may not be properly synthesized is:
A. Trypsin
B. opsin
C. hemoglobin
D. Collagen
E. Insulin

12. The carbon and nitrogen atoms in the pyrimidine ring system are derived from
A. aspartate and carbamoyl phosphate
B. aspartate and glycine.
C. glutamine and glycine.
D. glutamate and carbamoyl phosphate
E. glycine and carbamoyl phosphate.

13. Enzymes that catalyze stepwise hydrolysis of mononucleotides from one end of a polynucleotide chain are
A. polymerases.
B. endonucleases.
C. ligases.
D. exonucleases.
E. nickases.

14. McArdle's disease is casued by the deficiency of :
A. glucose 6-phosphatase
B. alpha 1,6-glucosidase.
C. glycogen synthase.
D. glycogen phosphorylase.15. In uncompetitive inhibition of enzyme
A. Inhibitor binds with enzyme-substrate complex
B. Inhibitor inactivates the enzyme to form enzyme-substrate complexC. Inhibitor replaces substrate to form enzyme-inhibitor complex
D. None of above

16. In the gluconeogenesis of pyruvate, pyruvate is initially converted to
A. acetyl CoA
B. oxaloacetate
C. phosphoenol Pyruvate
D. glycerol

17. All of the following TCA cycle intermediates participate in other metabolic pathways EXCEPT:
A. alpha keto glutarate
citrate
C. fumarate
D. isocitrate
E.oxaloacetate

18. Glycolytic pathway is inhibited by
A. Chloride
B. Bromide
C. FluorideD. Iodide
E.none of above

19. The straight chains of glycogen molecules are broken down by
A. protein kinase
B. glycogen phosphorylase
C. a debranching enzyme
D. Adenylate cyclase


20. How many moles of ATP are produced from the breakdown of glucose to pyruvate by glycolysis?
A. 8
B. 6
C. 4
D. 2
actually ATP produces r 6-8 in glcolytic pathway
E. 1
 
please answer these
01 The amino acid that absorbs light at 280 nm.
A. Lysine
B. Histidine
C. Tryptophan
D. Glutamate
E. Cysteine

02. Compared to the uncatalyzed reaction, enzymes cannot change the
A. equilibrium of a reaction.
B. temperature optimum of a reaction.
C. pH optimum of a reaction.
D. stereospecificity of a reaction.
E. rate of a reaction.

03. Enhancers are DNA sequences that increase the activity of promoters. Which statement about these sequences is NOT TRUE?
A. They can exert their stimulatory activity over thousands of bases.
B. They are effective when present on either DNA strand.
C. They can act from both upstream (5') and downstream (3') of promoters.
D. They show tissue-specificity; i.e., a particular enhancer is active in only certain cells.
E. Their activity is independent of protein binding.

04. A globular protein that consists mainly of alpha helices shows a pattern in which every third amino acid in the helices is hydrophobic. This pattern is likely to contribute to the forces holding the globular protein together by
A. preventing the formation of turns.
B. preventing the formation of intramolecular ion pairs.
C. making proteolytic digestion impossible.
D. making one side of the helices hydrophobic to form the interior of the protein.
E. decreasing the interaction between proteins.

05. Which of the following cellular dimensions is the largest?
A. The diameter of a tRNA molecule.
B. The diameter of a ribosome.
C. The diameter of a molecule of glucose.
D. The distance across a lipid bilayer.
E. The diameter of a DNA double helix.

06. During lyposomal digestion lipid is oxidized to a chemically heterogeneous pigmented substance called:
A. melanin
B. lipofuscin
C. lectoferrin
D. xanthocyanin
E. none of above

07. Both zinc fingers and SH2 domains
A. are localized to exoplasmic regions of plasma membrane proteins.
B. are found in members of the receptor tyrosine kinase family.
C. are subject to reversible phosphorylation and dephosphorylation.
D. direct the interaction of macromolecules in signal transduction pathways

08. Concerning glycogen which of the following statement is true?
A. a straight chain of alpha-D-glucose
B. a tree-like molecule of beta-D-glucose
C. a polymer of alpha-1,4 glucose residues with alpha-1,6 branch points
D. the main component of plant cell walls

09. Which of the following RIA calibration plots is theoretically linear for all concentrations of antigen? Assume that Y= % bound and X= unlabelled antigen concentration.
A. Y versus X
B. Log (Y) versus log (X)
C. 1/log(Y) versus log (X)
D. logit (Y) versus log (X)
E. none of above

10. Oligosaccharides are commonly found linked to protein through which of the following amino acids.
A. glutamate, aspartate and arginine
B. leucine, lysine and tyrosine
C. cysteine, methionine and histidine
D. asparagine, serine and threonine
E. proline, hydroxyproline and glycine

11. The enzyme believed to unwind the duplex DNA helix to expose single-stranded regions suitable for chromosomal replication in E. coli is called:
A. helicase
B. gyrase
C. ligase
D. primase
E. topoisomerase

12. The specificity of a ligand binding site on a protein is based on:
A. the absence of competing ligands.
B. the amino acid residues lining the binding site.
C.the presence of hydrating water molecules.
D. the opposite chirality of the binding ligand.
E. the similar size and shape of protein and ligand.

13. It important to prevent the entry of oxygen into polyacrylamide gels during the setting process because oxygen
A. will inhibit the setting of the gel
B. will catalyse the setting of the polyacrylamide gel
C. cause the acrylamide to become hygroscopic
D. cause polyacrylamide to become highly flammable.
E. Will accelerate hydrolysis of polyacrylamide

14. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The ratio of purines to pyrimidines in double-stranded DNA is 2:1 (because purines are larger than pyrimidines).
B. The ratio of T in double-stranded DNA to U in single-stranded RNA is 1:2.
C. The ratio of G to C in single-stranded RNA is 1:1.
D. The ratio of G to C in double-stranded DNA is 1:1.
E. The ratio of G to A in double-stranded DNA is 1:1.

15: DNA can always be distinguished from RNA because
A. DNA contains uracil, whereas RNA contains thymine.
B. DNA is larger.
C. The phosphodiester bond in DNA is stable to alkali, whereas that in RNA is sensitive to alkali.
D. nucleases attack DNA, but not RNA.
E. DNA is in the nucleus, whereas RNA is in the cytoplasm.

16. In oxygenated myoglobin, the oxygen molecule
A. replaces a histidine side chain in the iron coordination system.
B. causes the reversible oxidation of Fe2+ to Fe3+.
C. forces a change in conformation of one alpha-helix to a beta-strand
D. is bound between two iron-porphyrin prosthetic groups.
E. becomes the sixth member of the iron coordination system.

17. All of the following enzymes are serine proteinases EXCEPT
A. trypsin.
B. plasminogen activator.
C. neutrophil elastase.
D. factor Xa
E. collagenase.

18. During fatty acid synthesis a cysteine residue and a pantetheine moiety of fatty acid synthase
A. chelate Zn2+ in the active site.
B. undergo reversible oxidation and reduction.
C. form covalent crosslinks with other protein groups.
D. form high-energy intermediates with substrates.
E. are phosphorylated to achieve short-term regulation.

19. Glucose is radiolabeled at its 1 position and fed to an organism. Where does the label end up in serine?
A. The alpha carboxylate
B. The alpha carbon
C. The hydroxymethyl sidechain
D. None of these

20. A principal difference between facilitated and active transport systems in membranes is the
A. direction of solute movement relative to its concentration gradient
B. sensitivity to inhibition.
C. specificity and binding affinity toward the solute being transported
D. kinetics of the process.
E. number of transmembrane domains in the transport proteins
 
lipid micelles have spherical structure which are stabilized by
ionic interaction of lipoprotein
ionic interaction of lipid groups
hydrophobic interaction of lipid groups
hydrophilic interaction of lipid grps

pls ans this ....along with a small explaination
thank you
 
lipid micelles have spherical structure which are stabilized by
ionic interaction of lipoprotein
ionic interaction of lipid groups
hydrophobic interaction of lipid groups----ans
hydrophilic interaction of lipid grps

i am sure about ans its given in decks and kaplan
 
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