Bootcamp Question

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Phospholipids are amphipathic because the fatty acid chains are nonpolar (hydrophobic) and the phosphate group is polar (hydrophilic). A triglyceride is 3 fatty acid chains attached to glycerol. This whole molecule acts non-polar and is therefore only hydrophobic, NOT amphipathic. You should know the general structures of these molecules and apply your knowledge in this fashion.
 
^What? No...

glycerol is composed of three alcohols and fatty acids are composed of carboxylic acids. When combined to make triglycerides, they make carboxylates which serve as the polar head of the molecule. In order for it to be amphipathic, it's gotta have hydrophilic and hydrophobic REGIONS; we're not looking at what the molecule is overall. To my knowledge, triglycerides have amphipathic regions.
 
DatRav is correct; I could find several sources but I just googled one statement for you.

In contrast to triglycerides, phospholipids are amphipathic, which means that they are both polar and nonpolar. Phospholipids only have two fatty acid chains, and these chains confer hydrophobicity to the molecule. However, the third hydroxyl group on the glycerol chain is linked to a phosphoryl group, which can then be further modified by prosthetics such as serine, ethanolamine, inositol, or a second glycerol molecule. These secondary modifications confer hydrophilicity to the molecule. Depending on the number available, phospholipids tend to aggregate into micelles or bilayers.

Read more : http://www.ehow.com/about_5044081_difference-between-triglycerides-phospholipids.html
 
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