Step II Breast Ca and est.therapy?!

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yalemd

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10+ Year Member
Is there increased risk of Breast Ca with OCPs? I know there is risk with Est.only therapy if breast ca is est-dependant (I.e. when est. receptor is +ve), but what about the combined est+progest therapy?

I read it in Secrets 3rd edition twice. Once it says it has a ''known risk of breat cancer, which slightly dec. with estrogen only therapy''. The 2nd says that ''OCPs have, if any, effect on the risk of development of breast ca''! Which one we should go with?

Any comment is appreciated. Thanks
 
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Harrison's 17/e: "The most credible meta-analyses of oral
contraceptive use suggest that these agents cause little if any increased
risk of breast cancer."

I think for the purposes of the exam, OCPs have no effect on breast cancer and are substantially protective against ovarian and endometrial cancer.
 
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IN the WHI, the risk of invasive breast cancer was significantly increased with combined hormone therapy.
In contrast to the results of the combined hormone therapy, NO increased breast cancer risk was observed in the WHI unopposed estrogen.


yalemd said:
Is there increased risk of Breast Ca with OCPs? I know there is risk with Est.only therapy if breast ca is est-dependant (I.e. when est. receptor is +ve), but what about the combined est+progest therapy?

I read it in Secrets 3rd edition twice. Once it says it has a ''known risk of breat cancer, which slightly dec. with estrogen only therapy''. The 2nd says that ''OCPs have, if any, effect on the risk of development of breast ca''! Which one we should go with?

Any comment is appreciated. Thanks
Click to expand...
 
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Amiodarone said:
IN the WHI, the risk of invasive breast cancer was significantly increased with combined hormone therapy.
In contrast to the results of the combined hormone therapy, NO increased breast cancer risk was observed in the WHI unopposed estrogen.
Click to expand...

Could you please exaplain the 2nd paragraph? What I got from yout reply is that OCPs inc. the risk but est. alone doesn't have inc. risk? Am I right? I mean shouldn't be also according to the receptor status (i.e. est.+ve or not)?

Thanks
 
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